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Exam Code: 000-226
Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills -v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer with a POWERS 520 and a FC #0595 expansion unit wants to upgrade to a
POWER7+720. The customer has TS2900 SCSI-attached tape drive and 20 70GB disk units.
Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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NO.2 A POWER7+system managed by IBM i is hosting an IBM i client that requires 24 virtual disks.
What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
that is currently only running AIX, or replacing the POWERS with a POWER7+720. The budget is
limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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Exam Code: LOT-404
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Enterprise Mobile Applications with IBM Worklight and IBM WebSphere Portal)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 125 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which scope should be used if the skin relies specifically on code within the theme or has a
specific function that is only useful in that particular theme?
A. Global
B. Private
C. Static-based
D. Theme-based
Answer: D

IBM   LOT-404   LOT-404

NO.2 Which is a true statement regarding Responsive Web Design (RWD) and IBM WebSphere
Portal?
A. A web application using RWD can be published to all supported appstores.
B. A hybrid or native application is needed in order to be able to support RWD concepts.
C. RWD itself is a practical solution to the shifting landscape of devices and screen sizes.
D. Accessing native features of a device is not possible when using RWD with WebSphere Portal.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three needs can be met with an IBM Worklight-only application approach? (Choose
three.)
A. offline use
B. app store presence
C. authentication management
D. access to mobile native features
E. use of existing IBM WebSphere Portal environment
F. personalization driven by IBM Web Content Manager content
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.4 Where is the correct place to define a Responsive Web Design breakpoint, for example
@media screen, in order to handle the different device sizes on the devices browser?
A. on the default.jsp of the portal theme
B. in the JavaScript of the web container of the mobile device
C. only in hybrid mobile applications can breakpoints be defined
D. in the CSS of the theme for the IBM WebSphere Portal server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which event listener is used in an IBM WebSphere Portal theme to detect if a page is loaded
on a mobile device?
A. isWebView
B. isMobileDevice
C. onDeviceReady
D. onMobileDevice
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which API is used to create a REST interface?
A. HTTP
B. JAX-RS
C. JSR 168
D. JSR 286
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which two themes are included in the Multichannel Feature Pack for IBM Web Experience
Factory 8.0? (Choose two.)
A. iOS
B. Tablet
C. Android
D. Portable
E. Smartphone
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 Which two statements are true regarding the IBM Worklight API? (Choose two.)
A. The Worklight API does not allow a developer to pass data from native to web or web to native.
B. Worklight provides a native API to communicate with the Worklight Server from the native page.
C. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from native to web but not web to native.
D. The Worklight API only allows a developer to pass data from web to native but not native to web.
E. The Worklight API allows navigation to native pages and back, including the passing of data back
and forth.
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 Christine has created an IBM Web Experience Factory project and would like to add the
Multichannel Feature Pack for Web Experience Factory 8.0 to her project. How can she accomplish
this?
A. Install the Web Experience Factory 8.0.0.2 Fix Pack.
B. Modify the override.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
C. Modify the bowstreet.properties file and set the attribute enableMultiChannel="true".
D. Right-click on the Web Experience Factory project and select the Import > Web Experience
Factory Archive command.
Answer: D

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NO.10 How can media queries combine multiple conditions?
A. using the symbol "&"
B. by an iteration with ??by an iteration with ?
C. by nesting with brackets
D. using keywords "and", "or", "not"
Answer: D

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NO.11 What functionality does the IBM Worklight Server provide when Worklight and IBM
WebSphere Portal are used together?
A. The Worklight Server is not used in the architecture.
B. The Worklight Server provides push notifications for the application.
C. The Worklight Server handles all data connections for the application.
D. The Worklight Server must be installed on the same server as WebSphere Portal.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which kind of feed does the REST API accept?
A. XML
B. Web
C. RSS
D. Atom
Answer: D

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NO.13 Mary plans to develop hybrid or native mobile applications with IBM Worklight, specifically for
iOS devices. What will she need to do to accomplish this?
A. She must install IBM Worklight on an iOS device.
B. She must be a part of the iOS developer program, so that the use of Xcode is optional.
C. She must download Xcode, which is an Apple IDE for developing iOS and Mac applications.
D. As long as Xcode is used, iOS applications can be developed on any modern operating system
(Windows, Linux, Mac OS).
Answer: C

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NO.14 What is WebDAV used for in IBM WebSphere Portal?
A. to deploy static resources
B. to register themes and skins
C. to deploy dynamic resources
D. to start the embedded client application
Answer: A

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NO.15 IBM WorkLight Studio is supported and can be installed on which operating systems?
A. Windows
B. Windows, Mac OS, Linux
C. Microsoft Windows, Linux
D. Linux, Mac OS, Windows, Android
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 00M-670
Exam Name: IBM (IBM SVP Primary Support Provider Mastery Test v1)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 25 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the recommended IBM technology that may be used to view and control remote
environments in order to troubleshoot an issue?
A. Same time
B. Fix Central
C. Assist On-Site
D. Electronic Service Request
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-304.ibm.com/support/assistonsite/

NO.2 When should a Primary Support Provider use the telephone to communicate with a customer
that has logged a support call with them?
A. When the customer has to be told bad news
B. When the customer is in a different time zone
C. When the message includes links to documentation
D. When the message has to be conveyed to more than one person
Answer: A

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NO.3 When troubleshooting, it is imperative to gather log files from what time period?
A. After the issue occurred
B. Before the issue occurred
C. When the issued occurred
D. One month before and one month after the issue occurred
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which party owns the responsibility of communicating a Problem Management Record (PMR)
solution to the end customer?
A. The Primary Support Provider will provide the final solution to the customer because they own
the relationship with the customer
B. Since they are most familiar with the code, the IBM Developer will provide the final solution to
the customer
C. The IBM Customer Support engineer will provide the final solution to the customer, because they
own the relationship with the customer.
D. Because both parties have a case open on the issue, the Primary Support Provider and the IBM
Customer Support engineer are required to jointly present the final solution to the customer
Answer: A

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf(slide 11)

NO.5 Which upload protocols are supported by the ECuRep Tool?
A. SCP , TCP , FTP and Secure FTP
B. TCP , UUCP , HTTP and HTTPS
C. E-mail, HTTP and HTTPS, FTP and Secure FTP
D. E-mail, UUCP , SCP , TCP
Answer: C

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Reference:http://www-05.ibm.com/de/support/ecurep/send.html

NO.6 What is required of the customer when a Primary Support Provider wishes to escalate an issue
to IBM Customer Support?
A. The customer must open a Problem Management Report (PMR) through the Service Request (SR)
Portal.
B. The customer must grant IBM Customer Support access to their systems so they can upgrade
their software.
C. There is no customer requirement, the Primary Support Provider will escalate the issue to IBM
Customer Support
D. The customer must install the latest version and patches of the software before IBM Customer
Support can be engaged.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of these best describes a Primary Support Provider's Level 1 Customer Support
responsibilities?
A. Taking the first support call from their customer and escalating it to IBM
B. Logging all calls in a call tracking system and utilizing the tools available to troubleshoot the issue.
C. Testing new software versions of IBM products and communicating the release of said software
to customers that have purchased the software from IBM.
D. Incorporating and testing any program fix provided by IBM Customer Support (as appropriate),
and delivering or communicating the problem resolution, bypass, circumvention, or other notice of
restriction to the customer.
Answer: B

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Reference:https://public.dhe.ibm.com/partnerworld/pub/swg/tivoli/lessons/lesson_1_ibm_softwar
e _support_provider_overview_v11.03.21.pdf

NO.8 What steps should a Primary Support Provider take before escalating an issue to IBM
Customer Support1?
A. Ask the customer to download product documentation
B. Forward emails from the customer to IBM Customer Support
C. Run IBM Support Assistant Lite, get all MustGather information, search the IBM Knowledge Base
D. All of the above
Answer: C

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Exam Code: SU0-224
Exam Name: Huawei (Huawei Certified Datacom Professional - Fast Certification)
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Total Q&A: 706 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the function of the peer ignore command?
A. Deletes a BGP peer.
B. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does
not receive the routes sent from the peer.
C. Retains all configurations of the peer, and maintains the BGP peer relationship with the peer, but does
not advertise routes to the peer.
D. Retains all configurations of the peer, interrupts the BGP peer relationship with the peer, and clears all
related routing information.
Answer: D

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NO.2 TRUE/FALSE: A device can be assigned an IP address 192.168.13.175, with the mask being 255. 255.
255. 240.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.3 In OSPF, which of the following statements are incorrect regarding Router LSA generated by Router A.?
A. In Point-to-Point link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
B. In TransNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
C. In StubNet link type, Data is set to the interface IP address of RouterA.
D. In Virtual link type, Data is set to the Router ID of RouterA.
Answer: CD

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NO.4 What is the maximum bits of a Class C address can be used for subnet?
A.6
B.8
C.12
D.14
Answer: A

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NO.5 Besides an IPv4 address, a router distinguisher (RD) also contains a flag that distinguishes IP routes to
the same destination IP address in different VPNs.
How many bits are there in the flag?
A. 16
B. 32
C. 64
D. 128
Answer: C

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NO.6 A Notification message with Error Code 2 indicates an error OPEN message.
Which of the following error sub-codes can be contained in this OPEN message?
A. 1: indicates that the version number is not supported.
B. 2: indicates that the AS of the peer is incorrect.
C. 3: indicates that the BGP identifier is incorrect.
D. 4: indicates that the Optional Parameters filed is not supported.
Answer: ABCD

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NO.7 In IPv4, which of the following is the SSM address range allocated by the IANA?
A. 232. 0. 0. 0/24
B. 225. 0. 0. 0/8
C. 232. 0. 0. 0/8
D. 239. 0. 0. 0/8
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which following BGP attribute can used to define a set of prefixes with the same characteristics?
A. Origin
B. Nexthop
C. Community
D. MED
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following configurations can be performed to implement fast failure detection on a
network?
A. Reduce the holdtime of Join/Prune messages.
B. Reduce the interval for an interface to send Hello messages.
C. Set up a PIM BFD session between network segment neighbors.
D. Reduce the interval for sending Join/Prune messages.
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which of the following character strings matches the regular expression 100$?
A. 3100
B. 100
C. 1008
D. 100 200
Answer: B

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NO.11 TRUE/FALSE: Only Router-LSAs and Network-LSAs are involved in intra-area route calculations.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.12 TRUE/FALSE: Only one BGP process can be configured on a router.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which statements about OSPF packets are true?
A. Hello packets can be sent after OSPF is enabled on an interface.
B. LS Request packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
C. LS Update packets contain detailed LSA information for LSDB synchronization.
D. LS Update packets are sent only after an adjacency is established.
Answer: ABC

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NO.14 Which of the following as-path attributes match this AS-path-filter?
ip AS-path-filter 1 permit 100$|400$
A. 100
B. 3100
C. 1234 1400
D. 300 400
Answer: ABCD

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NO.15 TRUE/FALSE: An IP-prefix-filter is used to filter IP prefixes and data packets.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which are the functions of the route target on an MPLS VPN network?
A. Enable the peer PE to determine whichVPNv4 routes can be imported to the specified VRF.
B. Enable the peer PE to determine whichVPNv4 routes cannot be imported to the specified VRF.
C. Enable the peer CE to determine whichVPNv4 routes can be imported to the specified VRF.
D. Enable the peer CE to determine whichVPNv4 routes cannot be imported to the specified VRF.
Answer: AB

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NO.17 Which of the attributes must exist in the BGP Update messages ?
A. LOCAL_PREF
B. NEXT_HOP
C. ORIGIN
D. AS PATH
Answer: BCD

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NO.18 Which statement about the trunk interface is true?
A. A trunk interface is always connected to hosts.
B. Multiple VLAN IDs can be set on a trunk interface. The VLAN IDs can be the same as or different from
the PVID.
C. The trunk interface cannot have a PVID.
D. If the trunk interface receives a packet with a VLAN not in the allowed VLAN list, the trunk interface
broadcast the packet in the VLAN.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which of the following are factors that affect QoS?
A. Bandwidth
B. Delay
C. Jitter
D. Loss of packet
Answer: ABCD

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NO.20 Which of the following technologies can reduce the scale of broadcast domain?
A. VLAN
B. Trunk
C. RARP
D. STP
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-M16
Exam Name: HP (HP Quick Test Professional 9.2 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When a procedure is created in the Function Library editor, what is the extension on the file?
A. .INI
B. .TXT
C. .QFL
D. .VBS
Answer: C

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NO.2 After running a test that contains both input and output parameters, where can the results of an output
parameter be found?
A. Local DataSheet
B. Global DataSheet
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Answer: C

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NO.3 In Test Settings ->Run the Data Table iteration options are for which data sheet?
A. Local
B. Global
C. Run-time Data Table
D. Design-time Data Table
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are the categories in the Step Generator?
A. Object, Operation, Value
B. Library, Built-in, Local Script
C. Operation, Arguments, Return Value
D. Test Objects, Utility Objects, Functions
Answer: D

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NO.5 What can you use to handle unpredictable testing exceptions?
A. A Do Loop
B. Recovery Scenario
C. IFHEN statement
D. Selectase statement
Answer: B

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NO.6 If you have a Virtual Object Collection stored on your machine, and you don't want to use it, what must
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A. Disable Virtual Objects in Test Settings
B. Remove the Collection from your machine
C. Disable Virtual Objects in General Options
D. Remove the Collections from the Resources list
Answer: C

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NO.7 Where do you mark an action as reusable?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where do you set the action iterations for a specified action?
A. Action Settings
B. Action Properties
C. Action Run Settings
D. Action Call Properties
Answer: D

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NO.9 In which command can you associate a function library to a test?
A. Run Options
B. Test Settings
C. View Options
D. Function Definition Generator
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which method for the DataTable utility object will allow you to retrieve information from the Data Table
during a test run?
A. Value
B. Import
C. GetCell
D. GetValue
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-081
Exam Name: HP (OpenVMS System Administration )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 146 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 To what does the term "working set" refer?
A.processes that are currently residing in the system's balance set
B.virtual pages that are mapped by a process that is in the CUR state
C.virtual pages that are currently valid in the global page table
D.virtual pages that a process can access without generating a page fault
Correct:D

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding the default behavior of batch job log files? Select TWO.
A.created in the job owners' SYS$LOGIN directory
B.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and retained
C.printed on queue SYS$PRINT and deleted
D.given the same protection as the batch queue
E.created in the same directory as the command procedure
F.given the same protection as the batch procedure
Correct:A C

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NO.3 Which command deletes a logical name TROLL from the GROUP logical name table?
A.DELETE/LOGICAL TROLL
B.DEASSIGN/GROUP TROLL
C.DELETE/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
D.DEASSIGN/TABLE=GROUP TROLL
Correct:B

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NO.4 By default, which file stores the system audit records?
A.SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
B.SYS$MANAGER:AUDIT_SERVER.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.SYS$MANAGER:ACCOUNTNG.DAT
D.SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button. Which command clears this intrusion record?
A.DELETE /INTRUDER/RECORD=XARA/0003440121:SMITH
B.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
C.DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD /SOURCE="XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
D.SET AUDIT /DELETE /INTRUSION_RECORD "XARA/0003440121:SMITH"
Correct:B

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NO.6 What are benefits of VMS clustering? Select THREE.
A.non-stop processing
B.massively parallel computing
C.single security domain
D.transparent access to storage between HP-UX, OpenVMS, and Linux systems
E.shared storage across multiple systems
F.cross-node automatic process failover
G.high availability
Correct:C E G

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NO.7 What is the difference between a buffered I/O (BIO) and a direct I/O (DIO)?
A.The user must provide a buffer to perform a BIO, but not for a DIO.
B.BIOs are substantially faster than DIOs, but consume more memory.
C.BIO data is copied to/from a system buffer before/after performing the I/O.
D.Most I/Os to terminals are DIOs; all I/Os to disks are BIOs.
Correct:C

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NO.8 What is the command to specify that DECwindows client programs use node XARA as the
DECwindows server, running over DECnet protocol?
A.DEFINE DECW$DISPLAY XARA::
B.SET DISPLAY/CREATE/NODE=XARA
C.CREATE/DISPLAY/NODE=XARA/PROTOCOL=DECNET
D.SET DECWINDOWS/NODE=XARA/TRANSPORT=DECNET
Correct:B

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NO.9 What is the purpose of security auditing?
A.prevent hackers from penetrating the system
B.analyze system usage and project future growth trends
C.analyze and record system use to detect attempts to compromise system security
D.gather system user statistics to enable system managers to charge for resource consumption
Correct:C

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NO.10 Based on the message format, "%facility-s-identification, text", where "s" represents the
severity; what would a severity level of "E" represent?
A.The command may have performed some, but not all, of your request.
B.The output or program result is incorrect, but the system may attempt to continue execution.
C.The output or program result is incorrect. The system cannot continue to execute the request.
D.The system has performed your request. The message provides information about the process.
Correct:B

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NO.11 To review all the audit events for a specific user, which command is used?
A.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SINCE=TODAY/USER=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
B.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/ACCOUNT=PAYROLL SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
C.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=PROCESS=NAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
D.ANALYZE/AUDIT/FULL/SELECT=USERNAME=ADAMS
SYS$MANAGER:SECURITY.AUDIT$JOURNAL
Correct:D

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NO.12 VMScluster interconnects serve which purposes? Select TWO.
A.host systems accessing all physical devices and mailboxes
B.host systems accessing storage devices through the MSCP server
C.communication to the master node maintaining the Dedicated CPU Lock Manager
D.direct access to the master node's memory for the shared lock database
E.host systems in the cluster communicating with each other
Correct:B E

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NO.13 Assuming patch kit DEC-AXPVMS-VMS732_SYS-V0600--4.PCSI is the latest patch installed,
which statements are true? Select TWO.
A.PRODUCT ERASE * will remove all existing patches
B.PRODUCT UNDO will remove the patch if it was installed with the /SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
C.@SYS$UPDATE:VMSINSTAL REMOVE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
D.PRODUCT DELETE RECOVERY_DATA /ALL will erase any existing undo data.
E.PRODUCT REMOVE_UPDATE will remove the patch if it was installed with the
/SAVE_RECOVERY_DATA option.
Correct:B D

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NO.14 Which command or qualifier is used to display each line of a command procedure while it is
executing?
A.SET NOON
B.SET VERIFY
C.@procedure/VERIFY
D.@procedure/OUTPUT=file
Correct:B

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NO.15 Which installation option performs a new installation on a disk?
A.CURRENT
B.OVERWRITE
C.INITIALIZE
D.PRESERVE
Correct:C

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NO.16 After execution of the command: $ DEFINE/JOB LOGNAME SYS$LOGIN:MYFILE.DAT What
happens to the logical name LOGNAME?
A.It is visible to all processes in the same UIC group.
B.It is deassigned automatically on the next image exit.
C.It is placed into the process logical name table.
D.It is visible to all processes in this process tree.
Correct:D

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NO.17 Which command displays the LURT (License Unit Requirement Table) entry for an OpenVMS
node? There is more than one correct answer. Select ONE.
A.SHOW LICENSE /LURT
B.LICENSE LIST /TABLE
C.SHOW LICENSE /CHARGE_TABLE
D.LICENSE LIST /MINIMUM_UNITS
E.SHOW CPU /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
F.SHOW LICENSE /UNIT_REQUIREMENT
Correct:A B C D E F

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NO.18 What is the lexical function used to return accounting, status, and identification information for
a process?
A.F$USER
B.F$GETJPI
C.F$GETJOB
D.F$PROCESS
Correct:B

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NO.19 Which command correctly terminates the AUDIT_SERVER process?
A.STOP AUDIT_SERVER
B.SET AUDIT /SERVER=FINAL_ACTION=CRASH
C.SET AUDIT /SERVER=EXIT
D.SHUTDOWN AUDIT_SERVER
Correct:C

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NO.20 Which statements about the swapfile are true? Select TWO.
A.The swapfile will be used by the modified page writer when the pagefile is full.
B.When a process is swapped out of memory, it is written to the swapfile.
C.The swapfile must exist on the boot device, and be at least the size of WSMAX.
D.The swapfile is optional, and may be installed on a disk other than the boot device.
E.The Swapper process writes pages from the modified page list to the swapfile.
Correct:B D

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Exam Code: HP0-M14
Exam Name: HP (HP Project and Portolio Management 7.1 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What are the different security layers that you can enforce in a request process? Select three.
A. license
B. field-level restrictions
C. participant permissions
D. access grant security group
E. workflow step permissions
Answer: BCE

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NO.2 What basic information is required to define a field? Select three.
A. token
B. validation
C. attributes
D. storage
E. field prompt
Answer:ABE

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NO.3 The below exhibit of request type intitled3 displays a set of fields in its fields tab. Where were these
fields acquired?
A. fields were added by selecting New at the bottom of the screen
B. fields were inherited from the default Request Header
C. fields were added by selecting the Field Group option
D. fields were added and inherited in Sub-Types tab
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which element of a table rule defines the logic for applying the automated entries in the results
column?
A. dependencies
B. results
C. PL/SQL D. SQL
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which time sheet statuses are displayed in the TMG-My Time Sheets portlet? Select four.
A. cancel
B. closed
C. approved
D. frozen
E. unsubmitted
Answer: BCDE

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NO.6 Which standard portlets are available on a preconfigured portfolio management page? Select two.
A. asset list
B. current portfolio
C. project list
D. portfolio by business objective
Answer: BD

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NO.7 If a project manager wished to provide a set of dashboard pages to the project team whereby none of
the team members could change the data or modify any of the pages, which option would be best?
A. self-service module
B. shared module
C. personalize dashboard
D. publish dashboard
Answer: B

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NO.8 What are the main configuration entities that make up a request process implementation? Select three.
A. request workflow
B. request template
C. request header type
D. request form
E. request type
Answer:ACE

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NO.9 Which of the field entries that can be automated by a simple default rule is mandatory?
A. Workflow
B. Assigned To C. Assigned Group
D. None of the field entries are mandatory
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which field attributes can be conditionally set using status dependency rules? Select four.
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B. editable
C. required
D. confirm
E. reconfirm
Answer: ABCE

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Exam Code: HP0-628
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HSx80 Compaq Storage Solutions for UNIX)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 95 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Under normal operating conditions, the reset button on the Operator Control Panel
(OCP) of an HSG80 controller_______ .
A. remains off
B. remains on
C. turns amber
D. blinks once per second
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where is the first place that data are stored after arriving in the HSG80 controller?
A. disk
B. cache
C. NVRAM
D. static memory
Answer: B

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NO.3 Exhibit:
What number matches the cache module used by the top HSG80 controller?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
Answer: E

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of supported cache modules in an MA8000 storage
subsystem?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.5 How many 1.0 inch disk drives are supported in the StorageWorks Model 4350
device enclosure?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 14
D. 50
Answer: B

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NO.6 How many device-side single-ended SCSI buses does the HSG80 controller support?
A. 2
B. 6
C. 7
D. None, all buses are differential.
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the maximum number of StorageWorks Model 4354 device enclosures
supported by the HSG80?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 4
D. 6
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does the green LED in the shape of a canister on a universal drive indicate?
A. drive is idle
B. drive activity
C. drive has failed
D. drive is operational
Answer: D

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NO.9 What is the maximum number of fan modules supported in the M2200 shelf?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.10 Exhibit:
If the first four LEDs in the exhibit are on solid, what is the condition of the
controller?
A. Controller is running.
B. Controller has a fault.
C. Controller is shut down.
D. Ports 1, 2, 3 have misconfigured drives.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-794
Exam Name: HP (Implementing Windows Server 2003 on HP ProLiant Cluster Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 69 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which adjustments should be made to the network adapter that has been set to Internal Cluster
Communications Only? Select THREE.
A.Designate the adapter as the primary NIC in a fault-tolerant team.
B.Remove all protocols other than TCP/IP and disable the Media Sense feature.
C.Set the adapter to a specific speed of 10Mb/s or 100Mb/s.
D.Set the adapter to use NetBIOS.
E.Set the adapter duplex mode to half duplex.
F.Use the auto-detect setting on the network adapter for the private interconnect.
Correct:B C E

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NO.2 Which SQL Server clustering requirement changed between SQL 7.0 and SQL 2000?
A.Only licenses for the first node in the cluster were required for SQL 7.0; all nodes must have licenses for
SQL 2000.
B.Multiple virtual SQL servers could not run on the same set of disks for SQL 7.0, but can run on the same
set of disks for SQL 2000.
C.Binaries are on the shared disk for SQL 7.0, but on the local disk for SQL 2000.
D.Microsoft Transaction Server and Microsoft Queue Manager are no longer included as components of
SQL 2000.
Correct:C

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NO.3 Cluster.exe can be used to _______.
A.launch the Cluster Monitor utility
B.administer clusters
C.launch Microsoft Cluster Administrator
D.power down the cluster
Correct:B

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NO.4 What is the maximum number of drive letters per cluster for shared drives with Microsoft
Windows Server 2003?
A.18
B.19
C.20
D.23
Correct:D

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NO.5 The ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA500 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.6 The HP ProLiant DL380 Packaged Cluster with MSA1000 supports how many additional storage
enclosures?
A.0
B.1
C.2
D.3
Correct:C

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NO.7 Which description accurately depicts an HP Multi-Server Card?
A.It supports up to 64 network devices within a single UPS group and provides unattended, sequential
shutdown of every device in that group, regardless of the operating system.
B.It enables each load segment to function as a separate UPS with individual shutdown schedules and
load segment configurations.
C.It detects and warns users of power failures and manages a safe system shutdown before the backup
power supply is exhausted.
D.It allows for the safe installation of new batteries through the front panel, without powering down the
connected equipment.
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which tasks have been identified by HP as important when planning network capacity and the
graceful failover and failback of cluster resources and services? Ensure that: ______. Select TWO.
A.each cluster node has processors of sufficient speed to handle the maximum client load of the entire
cluster
B.the surviving node network speed and protocol will handle the maximum number of I/Os necessary to
support critical services
C.the throughput of the NIC on the surviving node is sufficient to handle the maximum network load for
peak load cluster services
D.each individual cluster node can handle the maximum number of clients that can attach to the cluster
E.the shared storage capacity is sufficient to handle the load of the entire cluster
Correct:B D

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NO.9 Which HP PCI-to-Fibre Channel host bus adapter (HBA) uses the small form factor transceiver
connection and supports the MSA1000?
A.32-bit/33MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
B.64-bit/33MHz HBA using the Emulex chipset
C.64-bit/66MHz FCA-2101 HBA using the QLogic chipset
D.64-bit/66MHz HBA using the Tachyon chipset
Correct:C

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NO.10 What is least likely to fail in a Windows Server 2003 network environment?
A.hardware
B.applications
C.operating system
D.operational issues
E.infrastructure (building, power, network)
Correct:A

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Exam Code: HP0-D01
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP Enterprise Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the maximum number of hard partitions (nPars) supported for an HP Integrity rx7640 Server
configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the maximum number of hard partitions (nPars) supported for an HP Integrity rx8640 Server
configuration?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer is planning to migrate their SQL database to a new server. Which information will help you
select the right server? (Select two.)
A. number of available I/O slots
B. projected growth in terms of new users
C. current system user list and installed software patches
D. plans to migrate this system to another operating system
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Which tool contains detailed technical information about retired HP products?
A. HP PartSurfer
B. HP Product Bulletin
C. HP Product Information Tool
D. HP Performance Quick Reference Tool
Answer: B

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NO.5 You are evaluating whether a customer's infrastructure can benefit from consolidating on an HP
BladeSystem c-Class with Insight Control Environment management. Which customer requirements
would indicate this? (Select three.)
A. high-volume deployment
B. power and cooling limitations
C. single server point management
D. support for dynamic RAID memory protection
E. quick redeployment through rip-and-replace technology
Answer: ABE

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NO.6 A customer is using an HP 9000 rp7420 Server and would like to increase system performance.
Which option is most cost effective?
A. in-box upgrade
B. scale-in upgrade
C. scale-up upgrade
D. box swap upgrade
Answer: A

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NO.7 You must verify the supported connectivity between a server platform and an HP StorageWorks EVA
storage array. You must also determine if additional software or tools are needed to implement the
solution. Which resource provides this information?
A. HP Enterprise Configurator
B. HP SalesBUILDER for Windows
C. HP SAN Design Reference Guide
D. HP StorageWorks Administrator Guide
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which information do you need from the customer to use the HP StorageWorks Sizing Tool to size a
data protection solution?
A. total storage capacity, number of servers, and file system type
B. total storage usage, data read:write ratio, and file cache hit rate
C. server workload ratio, transactions per second (tps), and file system type
D. total backup time, percentage of data change, and storage network (SAN) performance
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which information is relevant in determining if a customer needs a high-availability solution?
A. criticality of applications
B. type of networking speed
C. type of Fibre Channel speed
D. response time on application support
Answer: A

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NO.10 During a site survey, you must identify the scalability of an existing rx6600 server. What is the
maximum number of processor modules supported for the HP Integrity rx6600 Server?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.11 A customer recently purchased and implemented an 8-node cluster consisting of HP Integrity rx8640
Servers running HP-UX 11i v3 and HP Serviceguard. They are using an Oracle 10g and SAP solution on
those systems. Which solution should the customer consider to enhance the current infrastructure?
A. Virtual Server Environment
B. Insight Power Management
C. Rapid Deployment Solution
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer is planning to migrate their SQL database to a new server. Which information will help you
select the right server? (Select two.)
A. current system power utilization
B. projected growth in terms of new users
C. current user workload and transactions per second
D. current system user list and installed software patches
Answer: BC

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NO.13 Which information is relevant in determining if a customer needs a business continuity solution?
A. criticality of applications
B. type of networking speed
C. type of Fibre Channel speed
D. response time on application support
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which information is crucial when preparing a site for new HP servers and storage?
A. BTU factor, power consumption, airflow
B. BTU factor, airflow, operating system properties
C. BTU factor, Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) compliance
D. airflow, Restriction of Hazardous Substances (RoHS) compliance, operating system properties
Answer: A

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NO.15 When conducting a site survey, which factors are critical to the deployment of several hundred c-Class
enclosures? (Select two.)
A. electrical workload
B. shipments to the facility
C. helpdesk response time
D. amount of heat generated
E. fire hazard protection in the facility
Answer: AD

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NO.16 A customer recently purchased and implemented an 8-node cluster consisting of HP Integrity rx8640
Servers running on an HP OpenVMS cluster. They are using medical applications on those systems.
Which solution should the customer consider to enhance the management of the current infrastructure?
A. Insight Power Management
B. Rapid Deployment Solution
C. HP Systems Insight Manager
D. Vulnerability and Patch Management
Answer: C

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NO.17 You must verify that the existing data center power and cooling can support 15 units of fully populated,
c7000 enclosures. Which resource provides information about heat-generated air flow and power
requirements for the enclosures?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. BladeSystem Sizer
C. StorageWorks Sizer
D. SalesBUILDER for Windows
Answer: B

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NO.18 A customer is interested in implementing the proactive performance capturing and optimization
reporting functionality within the HP Insight Control Environment (ICE) suite. Which operating systems are
supported? (Select two.)
A. Linux
B. HP-UX
C. Solaris
D. Windows
E. OpenVMS
Answer: AD

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NO.19 Which resource can be used to plan and configure HP servers and HP storage in a data center?
A. StorageWorks Sizer
B. SalesBUILDER for Windows
C. Performance Quick Reference Tool
D. HP 9000 and HP Integrity Ordering Guide
Answer: B

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NO.20 When conducting a site survey, which factors are critical to the deployment of 35 units of rx8640
server complexes? (Select three.)
A. electrical workload
B. helpdesk response time
C. amount of heat generated
D. equipment loading in the facility
E. fire hazard protection in the facility
Answer: ACD

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