2013年11月30日星期六

HP certification HP2-E13 exam free exercises updates

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Exam Code: HP2-E13
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Enterprise Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 82 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 CORRECT TEXT
What is the primary reason that drives customers to implement IT Consolidation solutions?
Answer: the need to increase IT staff

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Answer: the need to increase the entire supply chain

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Answer: the need to increase security and dependence on IT

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Answer: the need to control diverse environments while reducing IT costs

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Answer: Pending

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NO.2 CORRECT TEXT
HP works with many solution providers to integrate innovation into solutions. Which partner helps
ensure the latest in microprocessor technology?
Answer: AMD

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Answer: Lotus

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Answer: Citri

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Answer: Red Hat

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Answer: Microsoft

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Answer: Pending

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NO.3 CORRECT TEXT
How does HP define IT Consolidation solutions?
Answer: as a one-time-only project
Answer: by downsizing the number of systems in the data center

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Answer: as a process that affects only servers, storage, and databases *
Answer: using proven strategies for streamlining inefficient infrastructures

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Answer: Pending

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NO.4 CORRECT TEXT
Which statement is true regarding the new world of business technology? (Select two.)
Answer: IT is seen as separate from the business itself.
Answer: It reduces the cost of IT while improving business performance.
Answer: Technology does not support the business; it powers the business.
Answer: IT is focused on data processing and management information systems.
Answer: Pending

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NO.5 Which action is needed to solve the problem described below?
High costs due to multiple server locations and underutilized IT facilities.
A. control
B. continuity
C. compliance
D. collaboration
E. consolidation
Answer: D

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NO.6 CORRECT TEXT
During a BladeSystem sales process, you communicate the benefits of migrating to HP
BladeSystem architecture. Which benefits should you emphasize? (Select two.)
Answer: Blades require less infrastructure management.
Answer: Blades use less power for reduced cooling costs.
Answer: Blades support plug-and-play replacement for easy maintenance.
Answer: A blade deployment is less expensive than a traditional server deployment.
Answer: Pending

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NO.7 How can StorageWorks MSL tape libraries extend the benefits of tape? (Select two.)
A. lowering the initial cost for tape solutions
B. automating the process of backup and restore for one or more servers
C. increasing the capacity of data that can be backed up without intervention
D. reducing the number of tapes required for backup of same amount of data
Answer: A,D

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NO.8 .According to the current HP roadmap, which HP servers are based on industry-standard
processors? (Select three.)
A. HP 9000 servers
B. HP Integrity servers
C. HP ProLiant servers
D. HP AlphaServer systems
E. HP Integrity NonStop servers
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 CORRECT TEXT
A customer has excess IT hardware they believe has remaining market value. They may wish to
acquire new HP technology or apply any remaining market value proceeds to other HP products or
services. Which HP program might you consider? (Select two.)
Answer: HP Trade-In Program
Answer: HP Care Pack Services

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Answer: HP Managed Care Services

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Answer: HPFS Asset Recovery Services

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Answer: Pending

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NO.10 CORRECT TEXT
Which statement is true regarding the dual-core Itanium 2 processor? (Select two.)
Answer: It supports more cores per processor than competing offerings.
Answer: It supports massively parallel processing for increased performance.
Answer: It provides increased multitasking performance while using less power.
Answer: It features dual-core spare architecture, which allows for online CPU spare.
Answer: Pending

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Exam Code: HP0-M39
Exam Name: HP (HP QuickTest Professional 10.0 Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You record and save your test on a shared network drive as SampleWebTest.
What is created on the shared drive?
A. a file named SampleWebTest.qtp
B. a folder named SampleWebTest
C. a file named SampleWebTest_Action1
D. a temporary folder structure
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which Active Screen capture level is the default setting?
A. Complete
B. Limited
C. Partial
D. Minimum
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which QuickTest Professional feature displays the recorded steps in graphical format?
A. Data Table
B. Active Screen
C. Keyword View
D. Expert View
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are examples of a visual cue condition? (Select two.)
A. A button becomes visible.
B. A record is inserted in the database.
C. A progress bar displays.
D. A button becomes enabled.
E.A bitmap displays.
Answer: AD

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NO.5 In which Options tab can you set the option to minimize the space your stored test will require?
A. Active Screen
B. General
C. Run
D. Environment
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which QuickTest Professional features can be customized using the Customize menu command?
(Select two.)
A. Menus
B. General options
C. Test Settings
D. Active Screen
E.Toolbars
Answer: AE

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NO.7 What are the advantages of automated testing? (Select three.)
A. easier
B. consistent
C. reusable
D. proactive
E. abstract
F. productive
Answer: BCF

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NO.8 Which actions can you perform using the Active Screen? (Select two.)
A. Modify objects.
B. Insert standard checkpoints.
C. Insert XML checkpoints.
D. Insert transactions.
E.Insert steps.
Answer: BE

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NO.9 What is a QuickTest Professional test comprised of.?
A. calls to actions
B. calls to actions (reusable only)
C. calls to QuickTest Professional tests
D. calls and copies of actions
Answer: A

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NO.10 Click Next or More to continue. Click the Task button. Click on the timeout value for the
synchronization point defined in the script shown in the screenshot.
Answer:

NO.11 How does QuickTest Professional identify each object you record?
A. by class and properties
B. by class and methods
C. by methods and properties
D. by class only
Answer: A

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NO.12 Identify the available column names in the Keyword View. (Select four.)
A. value
B. documentation
C. object
D. record settings
E.property
F. method G. operation H. item
Answer: ABGH

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NO.13 During the planning phase, you decide to create multiple actions that can be combined and reused to
achieve testing goals.
Which element is critical for identifying the actions to be recorded and how to combine them?
A. input data
B. parameters
C. initial and end conditions
D. visual cues
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which term is used to define the name QuickTest Professional assigns to a recorded object?
A. Physical Name
B. Object Name
C. Repository Name
D. Logical Name
Answer: D

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NO.15 How can you add recordable or nonrecordable operations to your test? (Select three.)
A. Use the Step Generator.
B. Insert through Keyword View.
C. Drag objects from the object repository.
D. Drag objects from the Active Screen.
E. Drag objects from Available Keywords.
F. Drag objects from the Data Table.
Answer: ABE

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Exam Code: HP0-M40
Exam Name: HP (HP Network Automation 9.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
Which page view does the exhibit display?
A. Monitor Status
B. Event Status
C. Server Monitor
D. System Status
Answer: D

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NO.2 When a user is being created, several things must be configured and/or assigned. Which entity can a
user be assigned to during the creation process?
A. groups
B. roles
C. command permissions
D. script permissions
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which port scanner do you use to discover network devices in HP Network Automation 9.0?
A. Nmap
B. Superscan
C. Unicornscan
D. Scanrand
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the term for multiple cores connected through database replication?
A. Site
B. Realm
C. Mesh
D. Partition
Answer: C

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NO.5 The IT Compliance Life Cycle in HP Network Automation has four stages. Which stage includes the
activity of establishing a workflow plan?
A. Discovery
B. Definition
C. Control
D. Maturity
Answer: C

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NO.6 Satellite Remote Agents send syslog messages to trigger a snapshot by an HP Network Automation
(NA) component.
What is this component?
A. NA Core associated with the satellite
B. Satellite Gateway host
C. NA Core hosting the database
D. host running the NA Core Management Engine
Answer: A

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NO.7 When you click Save Device, HP Network Automation automatically begins driver discovery using two
main access methods.
What is one of these access methods?
A. RMI
B. SCP
C. TFTP
D. CLI
Answer: D

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NO.8 To which entity are command permissions assigned?
A. Partitions
B. Realm
C. Roles
D. Users
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is a main work area in the My Workspace Window?
A. Current Device Group
B. My Tasks
C. Current Work Flows
D. Search
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is one of the default roles included in HP Network Automation?
A. User Manager
B. Core Administrator
C. Device Manager
D. Limited Access
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP0-J44
Exam Name: HP (Advanced SAN Architecture)
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Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 What must you consider before you merge an old fabric with a new SAN implementation?
A. Active array controller ports must be taken offline to allow both fabrics to merge.
B. Zone configurations must be disabled on the existing fabrics.
C. New switches must be set to the same domain ID as the existing switches.
D. Each switch in the merged fabric must have a unique domain ID.
Answer: D

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NO.2 While designing the SAN to meet your customer's throughput requirements, you need to configure
several 4Gb/s B-Series SAN switches with inter-switch links. What is the maximum throughput available
using a trunk group between 2 switches?
A. 8Gb/s
B. 16Gb/s
C. 32Gb/s
D. 64Gb/s
Answer: C

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NO.3 Continuous Access XP software products allow host-independent, real-time, remote data mirroring
between XP disk arrays. If you are designing a solution that requires no performance impact on the host
application, but the link between sites is not necessarily highly available, what is the best choice?
A. CA for XP Sync
B. CA for XPAsync
C. CA for XP Journal
D. CA for XP Link Extension
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the primary responsibilities of the SAN architect? (Select three.)
A. Ensuring data availability
B. Solving revision conflicts
C. Solving management problems
D. Ensuring data protection
E. Solving SAN scalability issues
F. Ensuring database consistency or validity
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 Which blocksize should you choose for a profile requiring performance-critical random access
applications?
A. 2,048 bytes.
B. 4,096 bytes
C. 8,192 bytes
D. 16,384 bytes
Answer: A

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NO.6 When considering a proof of concept model for a customer with a Customer Relation Database (CRM)
environment requiring high bandwidth, which size do you expect for the majority of I/O requests?
A. less than 8K
B. less than 100k
C. greater than 1MB
D. greater than 100k
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which HP tool can be used to validate the integrity of your customer's current SAN environment prior to
a SAN upgrade?
A. HPStorageWorks SAN Validation
B. HPStorageWorks SAN Sizer
C. HPStorageWorks SAN Designer
D. HPStorageWorks Essentials SAN Visibility
Answer: D

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NO.8 When designing a solution for a customer, there are different ways of looking at or viewing the SAN
architecture that is part of that solution. What are two of the four SAN architecture views? (Select two.)
A. Business view
B. SAN functional view
C. Storage centric view
D. Stakeholder view
E. SAN switch view
Answer: A,B

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NO.9 When considering the cabling of a new SAN environment with 8Gb/s switches, what is the maximum
distance per cable segment using OM2 fiber optic cables?
A. 50 meters
B. 150 meters
C. 380 meters
D. 500 meters
Answer: A

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NO.10 During a SAN switch assessment on a B-series switch, a SAN architect notices that the switch is
partitioned in a set of logical switches. What is the name of this feature?
A. Inter VSAN Routing
B. Transparent Routing
C. Virtual Fabric
D. VSAN
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-Y30
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP Networking Technologies)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 137 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 You must reset the startup configuration of an HP A-Series switch to factory defaults. Which CLI view
will enable you to complete this task?
A. manager view
B. global configuration view
C. system view
D. user view
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which HP E-Series switch features redundant management and fabric modules?
A. E2910 al
B. E8212 zl
C. E5412 zl
D. E4208 vl
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is a fit Access Point?
A. an AP that can provide WLAN services without a controller
B. an AP that has no intelligence and requires a wireless controller
C. an AP that can be deployed autonomously or with a controller
D. an AP that provides some intelligence under the management of a controller
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which type of port can handle more than one untagged VLAN on an HP A-Series switch?
A. trunk
B. access
C. aggregated
D. hybrid
Answer: D

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NO.5 You have entered the following command at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Switch(vlan-1)# ip
address 192.168.1.225/24
The switch's other VLAN and IP parameters are at factory defaults. While testing this configuration, you
find that the switch cannot ping a server located at 192.168.2.22. You have confirmed the server is up and
available. This server is located in a data center not directly connected to your switch.
What must you configure on the switch to enable connectivity between these two devices?
A. Add a default gateway.
B. Modify the IP address to 192.168.1.225/26.
C. Enable IP routing.
D. Add the server to allowed hosts list.
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch?
Switch(vlan-100)# end
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A. The CLI displays the Operator prompt.
B. The CLI displays the Manager prompt.
C. VLAN 100 is deleted from the switch.
D. The CLI displays the global configuration prompt.
Answer: D

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NO.7 You must configure a port on an A5800 switch to support protocol-based VLANs and port-based
VLANs. Which port type supports this requirement?
A. hybrid
B. access
C. aggregated
D. trunk
E. tagged
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which A-Series switch is designed for the large data center and the enterprise core?
A. A5820
B. A7500
C. A9500
D. A12500
Answer: D

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NO.9 You must configure SSH on an HP A7500 switch. Which item must be generated on the switch?
A. passphrase
B. shared secret
C. self-signed certificate
D. encryption keys
Answer: D

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NO.10 You must define a hostname on an HP E5400 zl Series switch. Which configuration context must you
enter to perform this task?
A. manager
B. system
C. administrator
D. global configuration
Answer: D

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
Which statement accurately describes the state of Gigabit Ethernet 3/0/12 in the HP A-Series switch
configuration shown in the exhibit?
A. The interface will be a tagged member of VLAN 12.
B. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 1.
C. The interface will be an untagged member of VLAN 12.
D. The interface will drop all incoming packets for VLAN 12.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which interface is available for managing A-Series switches at factory default settings?
A. Telnet
B. menu
C. console
D. web
Answer: C

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NO.13 You have uploaded an application file named "A12500.bin" to an HP A12500 switch.
Which command ensures this file is used during the next boot cycle?
A. boot-file cf:/A12500.bin main
B. load appfile cf:/A12500.bin main
C. boot-loader file cf:/A12500.bin main
D. set boot file cf:/A12500.bin main
Answer: C

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NO.14 You have initiated a console session on an HP A-Series switch at default settings. What is your
privilege level?
A. Visit (0)
B. Monitor (1)
C. System (2)
D. Manage (3)
Answer: D

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NO.15 You must configure VLANs and ports on an HP A7500 switch at default settings. What is the effect of
the following commands?
[SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port link-type trunk [SW-Gigabit-Ethernet1/0/1]port trunk permit vlan 100 101
A. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101 with 802.1Q tags. Traffic for VLAN 1 will be
untagged. Traffic for all other VLANs will be discarded.
B. The switch will add port 1/0/1 to a Link Aggregation Group (LAG) that is a tagged member of VLANs
100 and 101.
C. The switch will forward traffic for VLANs 100 and 101, but will discard traffic for all other VLANs.
D. The switch will forward VLAN 101 traffic with 802.1Q tags. VLAN 100 traffic will be untagged.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which HP E-Series switch models are fixed-port switches? (Select two.)
A. E8212 zl
B. E4204 vl
C. E6600-24G
D. E5406 zl
E. E3500-48G yl
Answer: CE

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NO.17 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E5400 zl Series switch at
factory default settings.?
Switch# exit
A. The user is logged out of the console.
B. The privilege level moves from manager to operator.
C. Unsaved configuration changes are deleted.
D. The user exits from configuration mode.
Answer: B

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NO.18 At the CLI of an HP E5406 zl switch, you have assigned ports A1-A4 to VLAN 70 as untagged
members. All other configuration parameters on the E5406 zl are at default settings. The E5406 zl is
connected through port B1 to an HP E8212 zl switch. The E8212 zl has been configured with an IP
interface associated with VLAN 70, and IP routing has been enabled. On the E5406 zl, what must you do
to enable the E8212 zl to act as default gateway for VLAN 70 clients?
A. Define an IP interface in VLAN 70.
B. Configure port B1 to be a member of VLAN 70.
C. Define the VLAN 70 IP address of the E8212 zl as the default gateway.
D. Add a static route to the E8212 to the E5406 zl route table.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the effect of the following command entered at the CLI of an HP E3500 yl switch?
E3500(vlan-44)#interface 23
A. The CLI displays the status of port 23.
B. Port 23 becomes a member of VLAN 44.
C. Port 23 is enabled.
D. The CLI enters the configuration context for port 23.
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which view is indicated by the following prompt on an HP A7500 switch? <A7500>
A. system
B. operator
C. user
D. console
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-M33
Exam Name: HP (HP Operations Orchestration 9.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Operations in some Library sections may not be modified in their original location and must be copied
into a different location before they can be modified. Which icon indicates this behavior?
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which criteria can be used to filter Run history reports?
A. run ID
B. variables
C. outputs
D. user
Answer: D

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NO.3 What happens when you double-click on a step?
A. The sub-flow opens.
B. The operation opens.
C. The stepdebuggger opens.
D. The step inspector opens.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What are valid out-of-the-box operations you can create in Studio? (Select two.)
A. Web Service
B. Cmd
C. RAS Operation Monitor
D. Flow Run Summary Report
E. Rsh
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What is a flow?
A. a logically linked sequence of steps associated with operations
B. a running step
C. a sequence of commands
D. a sequence of operations communicating with the RAS server
Answer: A

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NO.6 Where can you create a flow inside Studio?
A. library folder
B. configuration folder
C. integrations folder
D. operations folder
Answer: A

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NO.7 When adding a filter to an operation, the Select Filter dialog box opens. This dialog box includes a drop
down menu with several types of filters that can be added to an operation. Some of these filters are
language specific. Which language has specific filters included in this drop down list?
A. XML
B. HTML
C. Perl
D. VBscript
Answer: D

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NO.8 Where are view options found in Studio?
A. menu bar
B. Edit menu
C. flow authoring tool bar
D. Tools menu
Answer: C

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NO.9 How do you create documentation for multiple objects?
A. Compile a list of objects in the Create Documentation tool.
B. Select the folder that contains all the objects when creating the documentation.
C. Use a custom template from the <OO_HOME>/Studio/extra/template directory.
D. Combine the documentation files for each object into one folder.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Where is the callout function located in Studio?
A. step palette
B. Library/Operations
C. Library/Utility Operations
D. debug window
Answer: A

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NO.11 Where is the debug tool located?
A. Tools menu in Studio
B. Flow authoring toolbar in Studio
C. Administration tab in Central
D. Flow library tab in Central
Answer: B

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NO.12 Where is the target repository set?
A. Welcome screen in Studio
B. Repository menu in Studio
C. Flow Library tab in Central.
D. My Changes/Checkouts in Studio
Answer: B

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NO.13 Where does a flow author work with outputs?
A. library pane
B. operation properties window
C. debug tool
D. step inspector window
Answer: B

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NO.14 A flow has a grey background in the design panel. What does this indicate?
A. It is checked into Central.
B. It is checked out of Central.
C. It is an old version.
D. It has been changed and the changes have not been saved.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the default file type when generating documentation?
A. HTML
B. XML
C. PPT
D. PDF
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP0-M42
Exam Name: HP (HP Business Availability Center 8.x Software)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which statement about the SiteScope configuration tool is correct?
A. It is a wizard tool useful for configuringSiteScope monitors.
B. It ensures thatSiteScope monitors are configured correctly.
C. It is a utility for exportingSiteScope configuration data.
D. It is a tool for installingSiteScope.
Answer: C

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NO.2 What is the purpose of the out-of-the-box views in Business Availability Center? (Select three.)
A. to populate the CMDB with relevant data
B. to provide a quick start for working with the CMDB
C. to view CI Types
D. to provide a predefined topology
E. to set up Service Level Agreements
F. to show a high level overview of the business
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.3 Which statement about a Pattern View is correct?
A. It uses a TQL query to quickly insert a substantial amount of CI data into the CMDB.
B. It is an extension of the Perspective Based View used to add related CIs in the view
dynamically.
C. It defines a static TQL query which extracts relevant information from the CMDB and provides
the currently defined CI status.
D. It defines a persistent TQL query which extracts relevant information from the CMDB to
continuously generate updated results reflected in the view.
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is the purpose of a view?
A. provides a subset of the IT universe model in the CMDB
B. provides a snapshot of the entire IT universe model in the CMDB
C. provides a differentiator between discovery-based CIs and adapters-based CIs
D. provides End User Monitor applications the capability to use the IT universe model in the CMDB
Answer: A

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NO.5 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place the steps to modify a VuGen script in the correct sequence.
Answer:

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Exam Code: HP0-Y40
Exam Name: HP (network infrastruclure security)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 A consultant designs a disaster tolerance and disaster recovery solution in a Windows environment
using Enterprise Virtual Arrays (EVAs) and Cluster Extension EVAs (CLXs).Why should a majority node
be set or a fileshare witness be integrated in the design?
A. to verify that source and destination copies are identical
B. to prevent systems of LUN mapping changes in case of failover
C. to provide protection against split-brain situations
D. to guarantee the highest possible data consistency in the environment
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer needs a synchronous replication solution to a remote site at a very low-price entry point.
Which product meets the customer's requirements?
A. HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Cluster
B. HP StorageWorks 2000fc G2 Modular Smart Array
C. HP P4000 G2 Multi-Site SAN
D. HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)
Answer: C

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NO.3 A customer owns storage arrays from multiple vendors. The customer wants to improve storage
capacity utilization and their ability to apply point-in-time copies of volumes that span multiple arrays.
Which solution meets these requirements.?
A. HP X9000 scale-out solution
B. HP P4000 G2 Storage Cluster architecture
C. HP StorageWorks EVA
D. HP SAN Virtualization Services Platform (SVSP)
Answer: D

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NO.4 A flower distribution company purchased an ERP solution a year ago that included Windows servers,
two entry level SAN switches and a P2000 storage array. This company recently acquired another
business of similar size that uses the same ERP software, but with MSA2000fc G2 storage. A consultant
is engaged to recommend how to consolidate these two environments that utilizes both storage arrays.
Which resource provides compatibility and support guidelines for this situation?
A. HP SAN Design Guide
B. HP EBS Design Guide
C. HP Solution Sizer Tool
D. HP StorageWorks Sizer Tool
Answer: A

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NO.5 The CIO of a regional banking company indicates that the bank needs to open a new data center to
handle an increase in business and to properly protect the data of their customers. The new data center
will initially have constraints on the amount of floor space available. In choosing the size of servers and
storage, the customer has asked for both a flexible and efficient space configuration. In addition, they
want to be able to combine resources to support workloads of varying sizes and types.
Which type of servers and storage are recommended?
A. ProLiant DL Series servers and blade storage
B. ProLiant BL Series servers and blade storage
C. ProLiant BL Series servers and XP storage
D. ProLiant DL Series servers and P2000 storage
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which B-Series Switch license provides the customer with early fault detection in their SAN?
A. Adaptive Networking
B. Extended Fabric
C. Fabric Watch
D. Data Center Fabric Manager
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer provides performance and future growth requirements for a new SAN they want to purchase.
Which HP tool can be used to generate a list of components and a topology diagram for a SAN that meets
these requirements?
A. ActiveAnswers
B. SAN Designer
C. SAN Visibility
D. SAN Solution Sizer
Answer: B

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NO.8 A consultant speaks to the CIO of an automotive manufacturing company. The CIO reveals the
company's plan to open a new data center to handle an expected increase in sales in the coming year.
The CIO also mentions that TCO is important to the CEO, and the CIO does not want to replace
components when expanding the data center. Which resource is available to analyze the expected cost of
the storage for the new data center and provide financial justification?
A. Business Value Tool
B. Alinean ROI Tool
C. SalesBuilder for Windows
D. StorageWorks TCO Calculator
Answer: B

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NO.9 A customer is searching for a storage solution that provides combined FC/iSCSI connectivity paired
with target-based management at a low-price entry point. Which product meets these requirements?
A. HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array Cluster
B. HP StorageWorks P4000 G2 SAN Solutions
C. HP StorageWorks P2000 G3 Modular Smart Array Systems
D. HP StorageWorks XP24000/XP20000 Disk Array
Answer: C

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NO.10 A consultant presents an HP NAS solution based on two X1600 Network Storage System to the CIO
and CEO of an SMB customer with 110 IT seats. In addition to CIFS services, the customer wants to use
this storage system as iSCSI storage for existing Microsoft Windows SQL database servers.
Which benefit of the proposed solution should be presented to the CEO during this meeting?
A. reducing the Recovery Time Objective for file services in case of disk failure
B. minimizing power and cooling costs by using single-power supplies per system
C. reducing the Recovery Point Objective for databases when using snapshot functionality
D. minimizing rackspace by using a storage server with 3U per system
Answer: C

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NO.11 In being able to address a customer's business needs, a Converged Infrastructure requires more than
just some products connected loosely or in partnership with other companies. HP is uniquely positioned to
deliver on a full version of the Converged Infrastructure. What are some aspects of the Converged
Infrastructure that give HP a significant advantage in the marketplace? (Select two.)
A. power and cooling technologies
B. SAN bridges and routers
C. flexible servers and storage
D. data center design methodology
Answer: A,C

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NO.12 A customer wants to reduce the total cost of ownership of their storage infrastructure by
implementing a tiered storage approach. Which product feature of the SAN Virtualization Services
Platform (SVSP) environment allows implementation of data life cycle management policies?
A. SVSP Business Copy
B. SVSP Thin Provisioning
C. SVSP Volume Manager
D. SVSP Continuous Access
Answer: C

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NO.13 A customer is evaluating resource management software that is capable of efficient SAN and
end-to-end performance management for HP EVA storage arrays. Which HP software solution provides
this capability?
A. HP Insight Control
B. Data Center Fabric Manager Enterprise software
C. HP Storage Essentials SRM software
D. HP SAN Visibility
Answer: C

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NO.14 A customer's new business requires a flexible SAN solution, which can start at 20 device ports and
grow up to 120 device ports in a single stack per fabric. It should also include network management and
storage provisioning from a single screen. Which HP product line is the preferred solution?
A. HP StorageWorks DC04 SAN Director
B. Cisco MDS 9134 Multilayer Fabric Switch
C. HP StorageWorks SN6000 8Gb Fibre Channel Switch
D. HP StorageWorks 8/80 SAN Switch
Answer: C

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NO.15 A consultant is designing a SAN solution that includes an EVA6400 and an X3800 Network Storage
Gateway. The customer wants optimal utilization of their storage capacity. Which add-on software
provides this functionality?
A. Business Copy EVA
B. Replication Solution Manager
C. Cluster Extension EVA
D. Dynamic Capacity Management
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-B75
Exam Name: HP (Imaging and Printing Security-Technical)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-30

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NO.1 Which competitive advantages does HP offer for security when combined with printing and
imaging devices? (Select three.)
A. HP approaches security holistically.
B. HP partners with hacker organizations.
C. HP is the undeniable expert in securing and backing up networked data.
D. HP Web Jetadmin is the industry leading utility for managing imaging and printing devices.
E. HP is the undisputed leader in imaging and printing.
F. HP encrypts all printer data before sending it across a network.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.2 What are components in the HP Imaging and Printing Security framework? (Select four.)
A. Secure your data.
B. Secure your printing devices.
C. Protect your printed documents.
D. Improve workflow through authenticating network devices.
E. Reduce network traffic.
F. Monitor and manage your printing fleet.
G. Enable print job tracking and accounting.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.3 Why are job accounting audit trails useful for imaging and printing devices?
A. They restrict the use of color printing as needed.
B. They demonstrate that printers are being used.
C. They demonstrate that regulatory compliance is taking place.
D. They are used in accountant offices during tax season.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Why must the imaging and printing environment be secure?
A. Most imaging and printing devices are no longer simple network appliances.
B. Most imaging and printing devices are network appliances and need protection from physical
theft.
C. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technologies) requires it.
D. IEEp2600 standards require it.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Why is job accounting information gathered and utilized for billing and pay-for-use?
(Select three.)
A. to aid in installing, configuring and managing printer fleets remotely
B. to demonstrate that a company is making efforts to protect information
C. to gather data so it can be encrypted for security reasons
D. to track network usage and make network telephony changes
E. to show proof of compliance to regulators
F. to detect abuse of information sharing and digital communication outside the company
G. to create an electronic workflow for archiving hard copies
Answer: C,D,F

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