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Exam Code: ST0-079
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 114 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 A client needs to import structured customer data.
Which resource is used for this requirement?
A.records
B.dictionaries
C.regular expressions
D.patterns
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 In addition to storing messages for Spam Quarantine and Suspect Virus Quarantine, which type of
messages can the Control Center store?
A.notification messages
B.compliance triggered messages
C.delivered messages
D.deleted messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.3 An administrator has navigated through Status -> LDAP Synchronization.
Which tab will display details about an LDAP Synchronization?
A.LDAP to Scanners
B.LDAP to CC
C.LDAP Status
D.CC to LDAP
ANSWER: B

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NO.4 What is the recommended hard-drive size for a scanner-only virtual machine?
A.60GB
B.80GB
C.100GB
D.160GB
ANSWER: A

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NO.5 Which feature of Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0 detects Non-Delivery Reports (NDR) created by an
attacker?
A.Directory Harvest Attack
B.Anti-Phishing Filter
C.Bounce Attack Prevention
D.Symantec Probe Network
ANSWER: C

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NO.6 What are two parts of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.Message Store
B.LDAP Sync Service
C.Brightmail Engine
D.LiveUpdate Conduit
E.Suspect Virus Quarantine
ANSWER: BE

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NO.7 What does the Fastpass feature do?
A.skips virus scanning for known viruses
B.skips resource intensive spam scanning steps
C.passes incoming mail directly to the downstream MTA
D.bypasses scanning on outgoing mail
ANSWER: B

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NO.8 Which MTA operation is used if queues need to be drained to remove a host from use and continue
scanning and delivery of messages?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: C

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NO.9 What happens to a message that is forwarded to the Suspect Virus Quarantine?
A.It is automatically deleted after one week.
B.It is rescanned when the configured hold time has elapsed.
C.It is placed in the administrator's queue for review.
D.It is forwarded to Symantec Security Response.
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 What is the Heuristic Detection (Bloodhound) feature designed to detect?
A.unknown viruses
B.fuzzy matches against compliance rules
C.regex matches
D.Denial of Service (DoS) attacks
ANSWER: B

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NO.11 Which feature requires Invalid Recipient Handling to be enabled?
A.Bounce Attack Prevention
B.Directory Harvest Attack recognition
C.Reputation Lookup
D.Fastpass
ANSWER: B

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NO.12 Spam Rule sets are automatically downloaded from Symantec on a regular basis.
How often are these rule sets refreshed?
A.every 5 to 10 minutes
B.every 30 to 60 minutes
C.every 3 to 5 hours
D.every day
ANSWER: A

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NO.13 Which MTA operation is used if incoming messages need to be stopped while waiting for new virus
definitions?
A.Accept and deliver messages normally
B.Pause message scanning and delivery
C.Do not accept incoming messages
D.Accept but do not scan incoming messages
ANSWER: B

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NO.14 True file typing is a feature used to combat which behavior?
A.spamming
B.renaming
C.phishing
D.spimming
ANSWER: B

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NO.15 What is the minimum required memory size for virtual machine deployments?
A.1GB
B.2GB
C.4GB
D.6GB
ANSWER: B

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NO.16 To reach Message Audit logs, which tab should be selected in the Brightmail Control Center?
A.Status
B.Administration
C.Reports
D.Compliance
ANSWER: A

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NO.17 Which two email authentication technologies are included in Symantec Brightmail Gateway 8.0?
(Select two.)
A.Sender ID
B.POP before SMTP
C.Domain Keys Identified Mail (DKIM)
D.Certified Email
E.Sender Policy Framework (SPF)
ANSWER: AE

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NO.18 Which two tasks are performed by the SMTP session component of the MTA? (Select two.)
A.It verifies the IP address reputation with the BMServer.
B.It performs aliasing/masquerading for messages.
C.It reports the message as spam.
D.It applies the specified queue thresholds.
E.It interacts with the BMServer to access the filtering modules.
ANSWER: BD

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NO.19 What are two functions of the Control Center? (Select two.)
A.It provides message management services.
B.It routes messages for delivery.
C.It hosts Spam Quarantine.
D.It downloads virus definitions.
E.It runs filters.
ANSWER: AC

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NO.20 Which service retrieves new and updated email filters from Symantec Security Response through
HTTPS file transfer?
A.LiveUpdate
B.Conduit
C.Brightmail Engine
D.MTA
ANSWER: B

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Exam Code: ST0-12W
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Cluster Server 5 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Several application service groups require their own virtuallP addresses to share a single NIC on each
system in a cluster. Which agent reduces the overhead associated with monitoring the NIC’ s
status?
A. proxy
B. MultiNICB
C. NIC
D. phantom
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have one of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the second
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first system.
What happens?
A. Verltas Cluster Server uses the one from the first system.
B. Veritas Cluster Server uses the one from the second system.
C. Veritas Cluster Server will integrate the files.
D. Veritas Cluster Server will wait for the third system.
Answer:A

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NO.3 What is the Veritas Cluster Server term for how a system joining an existing cluster retrieves the cluster
configuration?
A. remote build
B. local build
C. onetime build
D. initial build
Answer:A

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NO.4 What is the Veritas Cluster Server service that maintains resource configuration and state
information?
A. h~d
B. hastate
C. haconf
D.hacf
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have two of three systems in a cluster up and running Veritas Cluster Server. When the third
system starts, it finds that it has a valid Veritas Cluster Server configuration file. This configuration is
different than the one on the first two systems.
How does Veritas Cluster Server handle this situation?
A. It will use the configur~tion from the first two systems.
B. It will use the configuration from the third system.
C. It will integrate the files to resolve the differences.
D. The third node will be unable to start.
Answer:A

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NO.6 You are modifying the cluster configuration while the cluster is stopped. You have edited and verified
the main.cf file on system SysA. Which command do you use to start the cluster with the new
configuration on system SysA?
A. hastart
B. haclus -rebuild .Imain .cr
C. hasys ?start SysA
D. hareconfig
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which command do you use to change a service group attribute in a running cluster?
A. h~grp ?modify
B. hagrp ?change
C. hamodify ?group
D. hamodify ?attribute
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which two tasks can be performed to improve the overall fault tolerance of a Veritas Cluster Server
cluster? (Choose two.)
A. connect e ach system in the cluster to separate power sources DB. mirror the os disk of e ach system
in the cluster
C. connect a tape drive to each system in the cluster
D. add a local disk array to each system in the cluster
E. add CPUs to each node in the cluster
Answer:A,B

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NO.9 A service group with the FaiioverPolicy set to Priority has a fault and is failing over. The group fail over
to the system with the __ .
A. lowest as siqne d value in the groups SystemList
B. highest assigned value in the groups SystemList
C. lowest number of service groups currently online
D. highest available capacity in the groups SystemList
Answer:A

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NO.10 What are two valid settings for the ManageFaults service group attibute? (Choose two.) A . All
B. None
C.Priority
D. MonitorOnly
E. Manual
Answer: A,B,

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NO.11 Four servers available for clustering are located in two buildings. Each building contains two servers
and the servers are on the same network. There are two disk arrays to which all four servers have shared
data access. Which type of cluster topology is required?
A. campus cluster
B. global cluster
C. shared nothing cluster
D. split brain cluster
Answer:A

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NO.12 You are tasked with making an existing production system highly available with Veritas Cluster Server.
You have already verified that the hardware is compatible with Veritas Cluster Server. You are now
evaluating the software on the systems for Veritas Cluster Server compatibility.
What must be verified for Veritas Cluster Server compatibility?
A. the oper~ting system version
B. the volume management software version
C. the NIC driver version
D. the file system version
Answer:A

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NO.13 You are designing a high availability solution for an important new application and you are in the
process of identifying single points of failure in the design. What are two possible single points of failure
that can be addressed by Veritas Cluster Server? (Choose two.)
A. network
B. stor~ge
C. processors
D. memory
E. environment
Answer:A,B

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NO.14 What are three possible types of Veritas Cluster Server service groups? (Choose three.)
A. Failover
B. Hybrid
C. Parallel
D. Singlenode
E. OnOnly
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.15 Which characteristic must an application have in order to be managed by Veritas Cluster Server?
A. It must be re startable to ~ known state after failure and tattover.
B. It must be startable by a user other than the system account.
C. It must be a stateless application.
D. It must be capable of running on all systems simultaneously.
Answer:A

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NO.16 Which Symantec product feature or attribute allows for the same application to be started
simultaneously on different systems?
A. parallet service groups
B. Veritas FlashSnap
C. the online local dependency
D. the parallelstart group attribute
Answer:A

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NO.17 Where are configuration changes maintained in a running Veritas Cluster Server cluster?
A. memory on ~II systems
B. disk on all systems
C. memory on quorum system
D. disk on quorum system
Answer:A

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NO.18 A process is manually shut down to test an automatic failover of a configured Process resource. The
service group then fails over to another system. What should be cleared before bringing the service group
back to the system on which the test was originally conducted?
A. resource
B. attribute
C. cluster
D. system
Answer:A

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NO.19 You want to validate operation after installing, configuring, and starting Veritas Cluster Server. Which
two GAB ports should be shown as running? (Choose two.)
A. a
B. c
C. h
D. S
E. V
Answer:A,C

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NO.20 Which three elements must be moved from the failed server to the takeover server for network users to
resume access to the database when a failover occurs? (Choose three.)
A. the vtrtuat ts address
B. the set of processes
C. the Ethernet address
D. the public key
E. the disk group
Answer:A,B,E

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Exam Code: 250-314
Exam Name: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 2010)
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Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 To ensure that the Symantec Backup Exec database is kept within the maximum database size
limitations, which two options should be set to control the amount of data that is groomed? (Select two.)
A. alert history
B. catalogs
C. install files
D. job history
E. backup-to-disk files
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 A backup administrator has noticed that backups to a tape drive are running slow. What should be
done to improve performance?
A. enable the option 'Write SCSI pass-through mode', which allows Symantec Backup Exec 2010 to write
directly to the drive
B. configure the buffer size to be a higher value than what is currently configured
C. set the Remote Agent Priority to High which dedicates more CPU cycles for the backup
D. lower the buffer count on the tape device to ensure data is written to the device more quickly
Answer: B

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NO.3 How should an administrator determine why a job failed?
A. review catalogs
B. inspect the Job Monitor
C. review the job log
D. inspect policy history
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which setting in Tools -> Options can be changed to affect how long job history and job logs are kept?
A. Job Status and Recovery
B. Log management
C. Database maintenance
D. Preferences
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which two statements are true about the "Recovered Jobs" Error Handling rule? (Select two.)
A. It is only used in a Central Administration Server (CAS) environment.
B. It is enabled by default.
C. It is used to recover all failed jobs.
D. It retries the job based on the "Recovered Jobs" error handling rule settings.
E. It terminates the active job and sends an alert.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which utility can collect the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 log files?
A. VxGather.exe
B. VxCollect.exe
C. SGMon.exe
D. SymCollect.exe
Answer: A

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NO.7 In the Job Monitor tab, when is the "Created On" column visible?
A. when Detailed Monitoring is enabled
B. when there is a Central Administration Server (CAS)
C. when the Date field is added to the View properties
D. when the backup job state is Running
Answer: B

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NO.8 What is used to perform database maintenance tasks on the Symantec Backup Exec 2010 database?
A. VXGather.exe
B. DBUtility.exe
C. BEConfigure.exe
D. BEUtility.exe
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which process is used to install Symantec tape device drivers after attaching a new tape library on a
Symantec Backup Exec 2010 media server?
A. right-click on the device inside the Devices view and choose Install Tape Drivers
B. use Windows Device Manager to install Symantec drivers
C. use the Tape Device Configuration Wizard to install Symantec drivers
D. use the Tape Driver Install Wizard to install Symantec drivers
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which two views are available in the Job Monitor in Symantec Backup Exec 2010? (Select two.)
A. Job List
B. Calendar
C. System Summary
D. Alerts
E. System Detail
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Which two notification delivery methods can receive job logs as part of the notification process? (Select
two.)
A. pager
B. printer
C. email
D. fax
E. Instant Messenger
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 What is the purpose of a temporary staging area in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
A. uses a cache area to apply encryption to data during backup
B. allows individual items to be recovered from a tape-based image
C. allows database backups to be cataloged enabling granular recovery
D. uses available system RAM to process datadeduplication during backup
Answer: B

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NO.13 An administrator needs to restore several different versions of an existing file. Which option should be
chosen?
A. Restore Redirection
B. Restore Versions
C. File Versioning
D. File Redirection
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which two features are customizable in backup reports? (Select two.)
A. page orientation
B. report header
C. report font
D. page size
E. report footer
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 Which file is created when the user selects the Save contents of database to the Backup Exec data
directory option?
A. BEDB.DAT
B. BEDB.BAK
C. BEDB_DAT.MDF
D. BEDB_Log.LDF
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two data categories are available through standard reports in Symantec Backup Exec 2010?
(Select two.)
A. alerts
B. policy templates
C. jobs
D. accounts
E. catalogs
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Which two configuration changes can be made in order to reduce network traffic within a Central
Administration Server (CAS) environment? (Select two.)
A. keep the catalog files centralized
B. increase the interval time for job status updates
C. ensure that jobs created on the Managed Media Server (MMS) are monitored from the CAS
D. ensure jobs logs and histories are being sent to the CAS less frequently
E. enable some alerts to be rolled up to the CAS less frequently
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 How is publishing disabled for a remote server on which the Remote Agent for Windows Systems is
installed?
A. run Backup Exec Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
B. run the Remote Agent Utility on the media server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
C. run Backup Exec Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
D. run the Remote Agent Utility on the remote server and clear the "Enable the Remote Agent to publish
information to the media servers" check box under the Publishing tab
Answer: D

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NO.19 A restore job fails with access denied errors. What is the next step that should be taken?
A. start the Backup Exec Remote Agent on the appropriate machine
B. enable restore rights in Logon Account Management
C. check the restore job credentials for appropriate rights
D. change the logon account for the Backup Exec Remote Agent
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which Restore Selections view displays a list of protected servers regardless of which media contains
the data?
A. View by Computer
B. View by Server
C. View by Resource
D. View Selection Details
Answer: C

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Exam Code: ST0-090
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec control compliance suite 10.0)
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Total Q&A: 156 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 What must be done before the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 can use a newly installed Data
Processing Service (DPS)?
A. synchronize settings on all registered DPS hosts
B. register the DPS with the Application server
C. set all values of the common fields with reconciliation rules
D. import primary assets
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Response Assessment Module Web Service application pool account must be a member of which
group?
A. Administrators
B. IIS_WPG
C. RAM_Administrators
D. Distributed COM Users
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which database do the dashboards pull data from?
A. Production database
B. Reporting database
C. Evidence database
D. Master database
Answer: B

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NO.4 In order to use Response Assessment Module results as policy evidence in Control Compliance Suite
(CCS), which two statements are correct? (Select two.)
A. The policy and question must be mapped to the same control statement.
B. The same CCS asset must be part of the policy and the questionnaire.
C. The questionnaire and policy evaluation must be performed simultaneously.
D. The Content Studio must be mapped to the RAM server.
E. The user must be assigned the data owner role to validate the result.
Answer: A, B

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NO.5 Within an evaluation result, the status 'Unknown' is primarily defined with which check setting?
A. missing data items
B. heck ex ression
C. precondition
D. post-processing expression
Answer: A

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NO.6 An administrator troubleshooting the Symantec Control Compliance system notices that both the
Application server and the Directory server failed to start. The administrator verifies that Windows started
normally on the two servers. What is the next step the administrator should take?
A. verify that the Active Directory server is running
B. ping the load balancer from the Application server
C. verify that the Information server is running
D. verify internet access from the Directory server
Answer: D

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NO.7 An administrator wants to ensure that issues flagged as out of compliance are addressed as efficiently
as possible. The administrator wants to trigger the remediation process. Where is the remediation option
set?
A. within the Evaluation Job Wizard
B. within the Standard specification
C. on the Asset Properties page
D. on the Reporting page
Answer: A

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NO.8 Asset Import jobs from a particular site are running more slowly than Asset Import jobs from other sites.
What is the most likely cause?
A. The Application server service is untrusted for delegation.
B. One of the DPS Collectors from the site has failed.
C. The Reporting Database Synchronization job has failed.
D. Service Principal Names (SPNs) are configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A Standards Evaluation has completed and is ready to be viewed. What are two view options.? (Select
two.)
A. Risk-based view
B. Compliance-based view
C. Asset-based view
D. Failure-based view
E. Standard-based view
Answer: C, E

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NO.10 Which function of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 is responsible for generating tiered dashboards?
A. DPS Evaluator
B. DPS Reporter
C. Application server
D. Directory server
Answer: B

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NO.11 When an administrator of Control Compliance Suite 10.0 views the results of an evaluation against a
standard, both the risk score and the compliance score are high. How can these evaluation results be
explained?
A. Multiple sections contain failures.
B. The risk score tracks critical failures.
C. Many exceptions have been approved.
D. The compliance score tracks informational items.
Answer: C

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NO.12 What are two available formats for exporting reports from the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Reporting
and Analytics Console? (Select two.)
A. Comma Separated Values (CSV)
B. Portable Document Format (PDF)
C. Crystal Reports (RPT)
D. Microsoft PowerPoint (PPT)
E. Microsoft Access (MDB)
Answer: B, C

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NO.13 Which two actions can be taken on a predefined report in the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Console?
(Select two.)
A. Move
B. Delete
C. Copy
D. Export Report Template
E. Paste
Answer: C, D

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NO.14 In terms of securing systems and configurations, Control Compliance Suite 10.0 performs which two
functions? (Select two.)
A. performs event correlation on security logs
B. identifies high risk systems and configurations
C. scans content of servers for confidential information
D. provides guidance for and measures effectiveness against industry standards
E. proactively blocks threats from penetrating critical systems
Answer: B, D

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NO.15 Which Control Compliance Suite component automates the analysis of procedural controls?
A. Standards Module
B. Entitlements Module
C. Policy Module
D. Response Assessment Module
Answer: D

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NO.16 A single Data Processing Service (DPS) Reporter is assigned to perform database synchronization
between which two databases? (Select two.)
A. Reporting database
B. Evidence database
C. Credentials database
D. Production database
E. Master database
Answer: A, D

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NO.17 A Data Collection job fails for a Windows machine in Control Compliance Suite 10.0 (CCS). All
components appear to have been correctly installed and configured in the console. What is an initial step
to take outside of the CCS Console (Reporting and Analytics) to troubleshoot the issue?
A. restart Symantec RMS Process Manager
B. run a bv-Control for Windows query
C. recreate the Credentials database
D. verify the Enterprise Configuration Service
Answer: B

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NO.18 A Control Compliance Suite 10.0 user schedules a Policy Acceptance report. After the Report job
finishes, the user opens the results and receives the message: 'No data available to generate this report.'
The user is sure that certain people have already accepted policies this morning. What should the user do
in order to get the data in the report?
A. run the Report Generation job again
B. run the Policy and Mandates Metrics Computation job
C. run the Report Data Purge job
D. run the Report Data Synchronization job
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which two statements accurately describe the purpose of the Control Compliance Suite Production
database? (Select two.)
A. It stores the data that is collected from the assets.
B. It stores data specific to individual dashboards.
C. It stores the results of evaluation jobs.
D. It stores data specific to individual reports.
E. It stores evidence gathered from the extended evidence sources.
Answer: A, C

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NO.20 What is required for the Control Compliance Suite 10.0 Application server and Directory server
components to support Kerberos authentication in an Active Directory environment?
A. username and password
B. configured PKI certificates
C. configured Service Principal Names (SPNs)
D. successful sync configuration
Answer: C

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Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec EndPoint Protection 12.1 Technical Assessment)
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Total Q&A: 165 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides services to improve the
performance of virtual client scanning?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. LiveUpdate Administrator server
C. Symantec Protection Center
D. Group Update Provider
Answer: A

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NO.2 How can an administrator manage multiple, independent companies from one database while
maintaining independent groups, computers, and policies?
A. Set up limited administrators with appropriate rights.
B. Set up separate domains.
C. Set up additional sites using a single database.
D. Set up separate locations and turn off inheritance.
Answer: B

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NO.3 In addition to performance improvements, which two benefits does Insight provide? (Select two.)
A. reputation scoring for documents
B. zero-day threat detection
C. protection against system file modifications
D. false positive mitigation
E. blocking of malicious websites
Answer: BD

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NO.4 Drive-by downloads are a common vector of infections. Some of these attacks use encryption to
bypass traditional defense mechanisms. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technology blocks such obfuscated attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Bloodhound heuristic virus detection
C. Client Firewall
D. Browser Intrusion Prevention
Answer: D

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NO.5 The fake antivirus family "PC scout" infects systems with a similar method regardless of its variant.
Which SONAR sub-feature can block new variants of the same family, based on sequence of events?
A. artificial intelligence
B. behavioral heuristic
C. human authored signatures
D. behavioral policy lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses Sybase SQL Anywhere?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager embedded database
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager remote database
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Shared Insight Cache server
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology provides the primary protection
layers against zero-day network attacks?
A. SONAR
B. Client Firewall
C. Intrusion Prevention
D. System Lockdown
Answer: C

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NO.8 An administrator is logged in to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM) console for a
system named SEPM01. The groups and policies that were previously in the SEPM01 console are
unavailable and have been replaced with unfamiliar groups and policies. What was a possible reason
for this change?
A. The administrator was modified from using Computer mode to User mode.
B. The administrator was logged in to the incorrect domain for SEPM01.
C. The administrator was changed from a limited administrator to a system administrator.
D. The administrator was using the Web console instead of the Java console.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A financial company has a security policy that prevents banking system workstations from
connecting to the internet. Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection technology will be
prevented from working on the company's workstations?
A. Insight
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. LiveUpdate
Answer: A

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NO.10 A company with one site has a factory with computers in the manufacturing area. Both factory
managers and operators need to log in to these shared computers. Different policies will be applied
depending on whether the individual logging in to the machine is a manager or an operator. Which
Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 feature provides this ability?
A. Computer mode
B. Active Directory synchronization
C. User mode
D. Console authentication
Answer: C

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NO.11 According to Symantec, what is a botnet?
A. systems infected with the same virus strain
B. groups of systems performing remote tasks without the users' knowledge
C. groups of computers configured to steal credit card records
D. compromised systems opening communication to an IRC channel
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 defense mechanism provides protection against worms
like W32.Silly.FDC, which propagate from system to system through the use of autorun.inf files?
A. Application Control
B. SONAR
C. Client Firewall
D. Exceptions
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which component is required in order to run Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 protection
technologies?
A. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. LiveUpdate Administrator server
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: B

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13.Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component provides single-sign-on to the Symantec
Endpoint Protection Manager and other products, along with cross-product reporting?
A. Symantec Reporting server
B. Symantec Security Information Manager
C. IT Analytics
D. Symantec Protection Center
Answer: D

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NO.14 How does the Intrusion Prevention System add an additional layer of protection to Network Threat
Protection?
A. It inspects the TCP packet headers and tracks the sequence number.
B. It performs deep packet inspection, reading the packet headers, and data portion.
C. It examines TCP/IP traffic from the application and traces the source of the traffic.
D. It monitors IP datagrams for abnormalities.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component uses reputation to evaluate a file?
A. Shared Insight Cache server
B. Symantec Endpoint Protection client
C. Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
D. LiveUpdate Administrator server
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two objects in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console describe the most
granular level to which a policy can be applied? (Select two.)
A. Site
B. Domain
C. Group
D. Location
E. Computer
F. User
Answer: CD

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NO.17 An administrator creates a new domain in the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console. How
can the administrator copy policies from the old domain to the new domain?
A. Export the policy from the old domain and import it into the new domain.
B. Copy the policy in the old domain and paste the policy into the new domain.
C. Copy the old domain's policy XML file into the folder for the new domain.
D. Back up the old domain's database and restore it into the new domain.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection 12.1 component improves performance because known good
files are skipped?
A. LiveUpdate Administrator server
B. Group Update Provider
C. Shared Insight Cache server
D. Central Quarantine server
Answer: C

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NO.19 A company is experiencing a malware outbreak. The company deploys Symantec Endpoint
Protection 12.1, with only Virus and Spyware Protection, Application and Device Control, and
Intrusion Prevention technologies. Why would Intrusion Prevention be unable to block all
communications from an attacking host?
A. Intrusion Prevention needs the firewall component to block all traffic from the attacking host.
B. Intrusion Prevention blocks the attack only if the administrator wrote a signature for it.
C. Intrusion Prevention definitions are out-of-date.
D. Intrusion Prevention is set to log only.
Answer: A

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NO.20 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can be connected to an embedded database?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 10
Answer: A

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NO.1 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.2 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.3 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

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NO.4 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.9 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.14 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.16 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

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NO.18 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.19 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.20 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.21 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.22 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.23 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.26 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.28 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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NO.30 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

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NO.1 An administrator needs to restore multiple emails from a GRT enabled backup of Exchange to a file.
Which file format will be created?
A. .MSG
B. .CAB
C. .PST
D. .OST
Answer: C

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NO.2 An administrator needs to restore a mailbox to an Exchange 2010 Database Availability Group. Which
server must have an installed Agent for Windows in order to restore from a GRT enabled backup of
Exchange?
A. the Edge Transport server
B. the Active Mailbox server
C. the Client Access server
D. the Passive Mailbox server
Answer: C

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NO.3 A user requests the restore of files from the backup of a different server. The administrator performs a
redirected restore to the user's folder. Which "Restore site list and item level permissions" option must the
administrator select so the user can use the restored files?
A. restore only the NTFS permissions
B. restore files with the NTFS permissions of the destination folder
C. restore files without their NTFS permissions
D. restore files with their NTFS partitions
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which two behaviors of the Symantec Backup Exec 2012 Agent for Applications and Databases apply
to Microsoft Active Directory? (Select two.)
A. It is installed as a separate add-on component.
B. Windows Active Directory database can be backed up while online.
C. It is a system service that runs on remote Windows servers where active directory is installed.
D. Granular restore of individual Active Directory objects and attributes is unsupported.
E. It requires Agent for Windows to be running on the domain controller.
Answer: B,E

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NO.5 A job runs with a custom error-handling rule in addition to the default error-handing rule. What will
happen?
A. The custom error-handling rule will apply.
B. The default error-handling rule will apply.
C. The job will fail.
D. The administrator will be prompted to select the rule.
Answer: A

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NO.6 For GRT operations, in which two instances must the default path for the TEMP directory specified in
"Symantec Backup Exec 2012 > Configuration and settings > Backup Exec Settings > Granular Recovery
Technology" be modified? (Select two.)
A. when the default path is the system volume
B. when the default path is a mapped drive letter
C. when the default path is NTFS
D. when the default path is FAT32
E. when the default path contains the Windows page file
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 Which tool should be used to collect debug logs for a failing backup of a remote server.?
A. BEUtility.exe
B. Ramcmd.exe
C. VxMon.exe
D. SGMon.exe
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two options are supported by the Checkpoint Restart feature of Symantec Backup Exec 2012?
(Select two.)
A. FAT32 volumes
B. NTFS volumes
C. Linux computers
D. Cluster Shared Volumes (CSV)
E. VSS
Answer: B,E

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NO.9 An administrator plans to use Symantec Backup Exec 2012 data deduplication capabilities to protect a
Hyper-V environment. The administrator needs to leverage client-side deduplication and image-based
backups of the Hyper-V virtual machines. How does Symantec Backup Exec 2012 accomplish this task?
A. The Agent for Windows installed on the Hyper-V host performs client-side deduplication.
B. Backup data is deduplicated "in flight" during transport to the Symantec Backup Exec server.
C. Hyper-V virtual machines use the .VHD format for virtual disks, which is deduplicated by definition.
D. The PureDisk client installed to the Hyper-V secondary server performs client-side deduplication.
Answer: A

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NO.10 An administrator needs to use the Agent for VMware and Hyper-V to protect a VMware virtual machine
hosting Microsoft Exchange. The administrator needs to restore granular application objects, such as
emails, from the backup sets that are captured from the virtual machine hosting Exchange. Which action
should the administrator take before configuring a backup definition for the virtual machine hosting
Exchange?
A. run the Exchange optimizer utility
B. manually install VMware tools on the virtual machine
C. install the Agent for Windows on the virtual machine hosting Exchange
D. manually truncate Exchange transaction logs
Answer: C

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NO.11 Where are the Symantec Backup Exec Job Log files stored by default?
A. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec
B. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Data
C. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Logs
D. \Program Files\Symantec\Backup Exec\Log
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 default global scheduling option allows jobs to be cancelled
without manual intervention?
A. job auto cancel after 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
B. kill the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
C. terminate the job if it is still running 'x' hours if no data has incremented
D. cancel the job if it is still running 'x' hours after its scheduled start time
Answer: D

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NO.13 A backup job failed with an access denied error message. Which option in the backup job property can
be used to set the correct permissions?
A. verify credentials
B. user account credentials
C. validate credentials
D. test/edit credentials
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which Symantec Backup Exec 2012 troubleshooting tool should an end user use before contacting
Symantec for additional support?
A. VxGather
B. Collect Debug Output
C. Symantec Backup Exec Support Tool
D. BEDiag
Answer: C

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NO.15 In Symantec Backup Exec 2012, scheduled convert to virtual jobs can be configured to support which
two sources? (Select two.)
A. all differential backups
B. all full backups
C. most recent snap
D. last incremental with changed block tracking enabled
E. most recent full backup
Answer: B,E

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