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Exam Code: HP0-P19
Exam Name: HP (HP-UX High Availability Using Serviceguard v18)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 145 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which statement is correct concerning the difference between a local Serviceguard cluster and an
extended distance cluster (also known as a campus cluster)?
A. An extended distance cluster provides disaster tolerance across two data centers located on different
continents.
B. An extended distance cluster solution typically requires a physical data replication mechanism between
high end storage arrays.
C. An extended distance cluster solution typically uses host based disk mirroring between two computer
rooms in an IT environment.
D. An extended distance cluster is a separate product installation to implement High Availability between
two computer rooms in a IT environment.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which statements are true regarding Serviceguard Manager version 5.01? (Select three.)
A. Serviceguard Manager is a graphical user interface for the Serviceguard product.
B. With Serviceguard Manager you can monitor, administer, and configure clusters managed by
Serviceguard.
C. With Serviceguard Manager you can run a multinode cluster which consists of both HP-UX and Linux
nodes.
D. With Serviceguard Manager you can change package-switching and node-switching flags for failover
packages.
E. With Serviceguard Manager you can install Serviceguard software product on hosts managed by HP
Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM).
Answer: ABD

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NO.3 Which components are considered potential single points of failure within a single HP-UX server?
(Select four.)
A. SAN
B. memory
C. backplane
D. DVD drive
E. LAN interfaces
F. mirrored root disks
G. system adminstrator
H. redundant power supply
I. Fibre Channel Host Bus Adapter
Answer: BCEI

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NO.4 What does OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion) provide?
A. online replacement, addtion, and deletion of vPARs
B. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards
C. online replacement, addition, and deletion of cell boards in cell based systems
D. online replacement, addition, and deletion of PCI(-X) I/O cards and core I/O cards
Answer: B

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NO.5 A customer has a 2-node HP Serviceguard cluster running a mission critical Oracle database and a
financial application. At the end of each month the server utilization spikes with no idle CPU resources
and there is a need for additional capacity.
Which HP Virtual Server Environment offering provides additional capacity and is best in this situation?
A. Capacity Advisor
B. Instant Capacity (iCAP)
C. Integrity Virtual Machines
D. Global Workload Manager (gWLM)
E. Temporary Instant Capacity (TiCAP)
Answer: E

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NO.6 An e-ticketing application based on Apache webserver for a busy tourist market experiences failures
during peak season, resulting in loss of revenues.
Which product combination implements a solution that improves availability of the e-ticketing application?
(Select two.)
A. HP Serviceguard
B. Continental Clusters
C. HP Serviceguard Extension for SAP
D. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
E. HP Serviceguard Extension for RAC
Answer: AD

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NO.7 Which statements are true regarding High Availability (HA)? (Select three.)
A. Downtime is any amount of time when the application is unavailable (planned or unplanned).
B. HA systems provide a disaster tolerant solution that allows recovery from the loss of an entire data
center.
C. Unplanned downtime is be caused by a failure of a non-redundant hardware component on a cluster
node.
D. Metrocluster and Extended Campus Cluster solutions provide the same level of protection as a local
HA solution in case of environmental disasters.
E. HA is a combination of environmental, process, software, and computing hardware enhancements that
maximize the time that the application and system are available.
F. Highly available systems typically contain data redundancy through mirroring or RAID, some kind of
backup system hardware, power outage protection, and multiple LANs.
Answer: AEF

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NO.8 In the context of high availability, which statements are true regarding split-brain syndrome? (Select
two.)
A. It can occur on a 2-node cluster.
B. It can occur on a 3-node cluster.
C. It allows different applications to simulatneously access the same disk.
D. It allows different partitions to access the same disk without knowledge of each other.
E. It is caused when two clusters initiate an application that accesses the same disk simultaneously.
F. It is caused when two equal size sub-clusters form from a single cluster without knowledge of each
other.
Answer: AF

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NO.9 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX system? (Select four.)
A. hard disk drive
B. operating system
C. system administrator
D. redundant power supply
E. CPU on a Uniprocessor system
F. multi-port network interface card
G. alternate link to a disk in a shared volume group
Answer: ABEF

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NO.10 What are advantages of RAC cluster? (Select three.)
A. increases user scalability
B. increases database security
C. supports larger database size
D. increases hardware scalability
E. increases database availability
F. increases application scalability
G. decreases package failover time
Answer: DEF

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NO.11 Which products offer a solution to protect from failure of a complete data center? (Select three.)
A. Metrocluster
B. Serviceguard
C. Continentalclusters
D. Extended Campus Cluster
E. Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit
Answer: ACD

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NO.12 What is the function of the lock disk or Quorum server in a Serviceguard cluster?
A. prevents split brain syndrome
B. determines which node becomes the cluster coordinator
C. ensures that quorum is present the entire time the cluster is up
D. keeps a record of volume groups that are locked in exclusive mode
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which application templates are included in the Enterprise Cluster Master Toolkit (ECMT)? (Select
four.)
A. NFS
B. SAP
C. SAPDB
D. HP Tomcat
E. HP Apache
F. HP CIFS/9000
G. Oracle 9i and 10g
Answer: DEFG

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NO.14 In which situations can a local high availability solution prevent unplanned downtime? (Select two.)
A. An operator accidentially reboots a cluster node.
B. The shared storage component looses A/C power and goes down.
C. A complete data center goes down because of an environmental disaster.
D. The network communication between the cluster nodes is permanently interrupted.
E. The clustered application database becomes corrupted by installation of an application patch.
Answer: AD

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NO.15 In a Serviceguard implementation for concurrent instances of an Oracle RAC Database, which type of
shared storage management can be used on all nodes in the cluster? (Select three.)
A. Cluster File System (CFS)
B. Veritas Volume Manager (VxVM)
C. Network Attached Storage (NAS)
D. Shared Logical Volume Manager (SLVM)
E. Standard Logical Volume Manager (LVM)
F. Enterprise Logical Volume Manager (ELVM)
G. Oracle Automatic Storage Management (ASM)
Answer: ADG

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
Based on the cmviewcl output, which statement is correct?
A. A failure of ora_lsnr will cause alien_pkg to failover.
B. A single failure of oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
C. The subnet 192.168.1.0 going down will cause alien_pkg to failover.
D. A failure of either ora_lsnr or oracle9i will cause alien_pkg to failover.
Answer: C

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NO.17 When implementing a legacy package utilizing application monitoring, which variable in the package
control script will point to the monitor script?
A. service_cmd
B. SERVICE_CMD
C. MONITOR_CMD
D. MONITOR_NAME
Answer: B

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NO.18 What are potential single points of failure (SPOF) in an HP-UX environment? (Select two.)
A. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard over two physical
nodes
B. backplane of a cell based server when two vPARs are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
C. cellboard on a partioned node with two nPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
D. cellboard on a single-nPar node with two vPARs that are clustered with Serviceguard on the same
physical node
Answer: BD

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NO.19 Consider the following entry in the /etc/rc.config.d/cmcluster file.
AUTOSTART_CMCLD=1
Which parameter in the cluster ascii file is affected by this entry?
A. CMCLD_TIMEOUT
B. CMCLD_RUN_START
C. AUTOSTART_CMCLD
D. AUTOSTART_TIMEOUT
E. HEARTBEAT_INTERVAL
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which situations does Serviceguard provide high availability solutions for? (Select two.)
A. LAN card failure
B. application failure
C. client subnet goes down
D. poor application performance
E. failure of one of the LUN paths to shared storage
Answer: AB

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NO.21 Your customer wants you to design an HA solution with HP-UX and Serviceguard that runs the
customer's Business Critical SAP production system as Serviceguard package, pkgA, and the customer's
Development SAP system as Serviceguard package, pkgB.
You design two vPars (vpar1 and vpar2) on serverA and two vPars (vpar3 and vpar4) on serverB.
What is a good design for this cluster to provide the maximum high availability? (Select two.)
A. Cluster vpar1 and vpar2 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
B. Cluster vpar1 and vpar3 and run pkgA on these clustered vPars.
C. Cluster vpar2 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
D. Cluster vpar3 and vpar4 and run pkgB on these clustered vPars.
Answer: BC

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NO.22 What are the advantages with respect to application availability for a customer using Serviceguard in
an HA environment? (Select two.)
A. Application database corruptions will be minimized.
B. An upgrade of the operating system will only require a package switch.
C. A power outage in the customer's computer room will not affect the users.
D. Rolling upgrades of the application can be performed in a Serviceguard environment.
E. A failure in a redundant power supply will only cause a package switch to the adoptive node.
Answer: BD

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NO.23 What are the main features of OL* (OnLine Replacement, Addition, and Deletion)? (Select two.)
A. ability to replace a cell board on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
B. ability to repair a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
C. ability to online replace a PCI I/O card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
D. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) card on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
E. ability to online replace an HP-UX system that supports OL* while it is configured in a Serviceguard
cluster
F. ability to online remove a PCI(-X) LAN card and afterwards to online add a PCI(-X) FC HBA in the same
PCI(-X) slot on an HP-UX system that supports OL*
Answer: CD

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NO.24 Which failure scenarios are transparent to application users when the application is running as a
Serviceguard package? (Select two.)
A. A LAN interface fails on a node where no package is running.
B. A complete power outage in the computer room where the cluster is located.
C. A redundant power supply fails in the cluster node running the application package.
D. Manual application package switch because of planned downtime on the cluster node.
E. The cluster node running the application package crashes because of a memory multibit error.
Answer: AC

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NO.25 When a Serviceguard package fails over in a highly available vPar environment, Workload Manager
(WLM) integrates with Serviceguard and disaster tolerant solutions by doing which process?
A. WLM creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
B. cmcld creates a new vPar to assume the load of the failed partition.
C. WLM moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
D. cmcld moves processor resources from one virtual partition to another.
E. WLM can move a Serviceguard package from one virtual partition to another.
Answer: C

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NO.26 What is the purpose of the cluster interconnect in a Serviceguard extension for Oracle RAC
implementation? (Select two.)
A. Nodes can use it for cluster heartbeat traffic.
B. Nodes coordinate the shared storage status.
C. Oracle single instances coordinate their online/offline status.
D. Oracle RAC instances coordinate the consistency between their Oracle buffer cache.
Answer: AD

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NO.27 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF)?
A. mean time to restart a failed service
B. mean time to repair a server after a failure
C. mean time to restart a server after a failure
D. mean time a system provides service without failure
Answer: D

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NO.28 In the context of high availability, which phrase describes Mean Time To Repair (MTTR)?
A. mean interval of time to resume a service after a failure
B. mean time a service engineer needs to repair a failed server
C. mean interval of time when the system provides service without fault
D. mean time a service engineer needs to replace a server after a failure
E. mean time a service engineer needs to arrive at the site of a failed server
Answer: A

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NO.29 You are asked by your management team to do a presentation and explain why your IT department
should go with the SGeRAC solution instead of the standard single-instance Oracle implementation with
Serviceguard.
Which benefits should you present? (Select two.)
A. reduces the overall cost
B. increases the security level
C. provides easier cluster management
D. reduces recovery time of a large database
E. provides the ability to add more nodes to the cluster on the fly
F. increases processing power without the need to administer separate databases
Answer: DF

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NO.30 Which configurations are valid for a Serviceguard environment in combination with Integrity Virtual
machines? (Select two.)
A. Configuration 1
B. Configuration 2
C. Configuration 3
D. Configuration 4
Answer: AB

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Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura Conferencing (R7.x) Implementation and Maintenance Exam)
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Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 What is the requirement for Avaya Media Servers to be grouped into an Avaya Media Server
Cluster?
A. They must share the system default setting.
B. They must share common power supply.
C. They must share the same physical location.
D. They must share the same server name.
Answer: A

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NO.2 An administrator has a new license file for Avaya Aura® conferencing 7.
Which step should the administrator take to install the new license file?
A. Log onto the Communications Manager CDOM, then go to license and copy and paste the new
license file.
B. Log onto the Conferencing 7, then go to Element Manager and upload the new license file.
C. Log onto System Manager, then go to License and upload the new license file.
D. Log onto the System Manager CDOM, then go to Security and copy and paste the new license
file.
Answer: B

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Which two components are parts of the Web Server Group? (Choose two.)
A. Web Collaboration Management Server (WCMS)
B. Avaya Media Server (AMS)
C. Document Conversion Server (DCS)
D. Application Server (AS)
Answer: A,B

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7. During installation of the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 software, which prompt will the installer
receive?
A. The staging username
B. The deployment type or staging file to be used
C. The operations file be used
D. The operations file or deployment name to be used
Answer: B

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8. The conferencing moderator dialed into the conference room successfully using moderator
code,
and was also able to successfully launch Collaboration Agent. However, the web conference could
not be launched from the Collaboration Agent.
What is causing this problem?
A. During the conference user provisioning, the conference administrator did not enable the Web
Conferencing Server feature specific to this user.
B. The web conferencing URL was not added to the hosts file on the Media Server.
C. The Web Conference Server Was not added or configured in Provisioning manager.
D. The Document Conversation Server was not configured.
Answer: C

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NO.3 On the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 system, which two actions are involved in configuring the
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A. Log onto Provisioning Manager and configure it under “Conference of Service”.
B. Log onto the EM console, and configure it in the sub menu “Media Server Resource” under the
Feature Server Elements.
C. Log on to Provisioning Manager and configure “Media Server Resource” under System
Management Tab.
D. Log onto WCS server and configure the Media Resource in the Collaboration Agent window.
Answer: B

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NO.4 When viewing alarms in the browser, what is the default order that alarms appear?
A. Warning, Minor, Major, Critical
B. Major, Critical, Minor, Warning
C. Minor, Warning, Critical, Major
D. Critical, Major, Minor, Warning
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which SIP Monitoring field must be selected to allow the System Manager to manage
bandwidth
on the Avaya Aura® Conferencing 7 SIP Entity?
A. SIP Link Monitoring
B. Supports Call Admission Control
C. Primary Session Manager Bandwidth Association
D. SIP Domain
Answer: A

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NO.1 How do you change the system database properties for the Central Management Server (CMS)?
A.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the remote CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Configuration tab.
B.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) in the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), which is
pointing to the local CMS, stop the SIA and go to the Startup tab.
C.Select the CMS in the Central Management Console (CMC), stop the service and go to the
Configuration tab.
D.Select the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA), which is pointing to the local CMS, stop the service and go
to the Configuration tab.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A.Perl
B.Java
C.PHP
D.C++
Answer:B

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NO.3 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A.In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B.In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C.In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D.In the Event Server service properties
Answer:B

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NO.4 Where do you configure the Login action for Desktop Intelligence users in a 3-tier mode?
A.Under Settings in the Desktop Intelligence client
B.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence Cache
Server
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Central Management Server
(CMS)
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Audit Events of the Desktop Intelligence
application
Answer:C

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NO.5 Which three parameters can you specify in the command line for wdeploy? (Choose three.)
A.Web Server Type
B.CMS Administrator Username
C.Deployment Parameters
D.Deployment Actions
Answer:A C D

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NO.6 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A.BIAR
B.REP
C.Binary
D.BOMain
Answer:A

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NO.7 What is the difference between one-way replication and two-way replication?
A.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content only travels from Destination site to Origin site.
B.In one-way replication, content only travels from Destination site to Origin site. In two-way replication,
content can travel from Origin site to Destination site, or from Destination site to Origin site.
C.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels only from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
D.In one-way replication, content only travels from Origin site to Destination site. In two-way replication,
content also travels from Origin site to Destination site but this operation can happen more than once.
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A.Oracle Containers for J2EE
B.SAP Netweaver
C.JRun
D.Sun Java Application Server
Answer:A B D

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NO.9 Which replication object would you schedule?
A.Replication Job
B.Replication List
C.Replication Connection
D.Replication Package
Answer:A

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NO.10 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A.The latest data from the database
B.The oldest data from the database
C.The oldest successful instance
D.The newest successful instance
Answer:D

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NO.11 Which servers should you examine if you are unable to schedule a Web Intelligence document?
(Choose three.)
A.Web Intelligence Processing Server
B.Connection Server
C.Adaptive Job Server
D.Output File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer:A C D

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NO.12 A user belongs to both Group 1 and Group 2 and you want that user to see a specific folder. What
folder security settings would you use to enable the user to view the folder?
A.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2 and also not specified for the
Everyone group
B.Set the view right to denied for Group 1 and granted for Group 2
C.Set the view right to not specified for Group 1 and not specified for Group 2
D.Set the view right to granted for Group 1 and denied for Group 2
E.Create a custom access level and grant for Group 1 and deny for Group 2
Answer:A

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NO.13 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A.Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B.Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C.Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D.Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer:C

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NO.14 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA)? (Choose three.)
A.Security
B.Administrative accessibility
C.Email notification
D.Reliability
Answer:A B D

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NO.15 What action would the Deployment Diagnostic Tool take when an InfoObject exists in the Central
Management Server (CMS) system database, but the corresponding file cannot be found in the File
Repository Server (FRS)?
A.Remove the InfoObject from the Central Management Server (CMS) system database, unless
otherwise specified.
B.Create a blank report as a placeholder.
C.Notify the user to republish the object.
D.Reassign the InfoObject to a new file.
Answer:A

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NO.16 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B.Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D.Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click on
Set Configuration Template.
Answer:D

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NO.17 Which statement is true of a single Replication Job?
A.Has two or more origin sites and no destination sites
B.Has only one origin site and only one destination site
C.Has one or more origin sites and only one destination site
D.Has one or more origin sites and possibly many destination sites
Answer:B

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NO.18 In which two locations could you configure the port numbers for the local Central Management Server
(CMS)? (Choose two.)
A.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Startup tab for the Server Intelligence Agent
(SIA)
B.In the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), under the Configuration tab for the CMS
C.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under the Server settings for the CMS
D.In the Central Management Console (CMC), under Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) settings
Answer:A C

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NO.19 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A.Web Services
B.Logging
C.FileStore
D.Win32_x86
Answer:D

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NO.20 You are migrating content into a new system. Which task must you perform to maintain the system
integrity (CUID)?
A.Define the LDAP configuration
B.List the groups to be migrated
C.Define custom security settings
D.List the active content folders
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 050-V37
Exam Name: RSA (CSE RSA enVision Essentials (new update))
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NO.1 When setting up a Check Point firewall device, which of the following is a good practice that should be
completed first? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Stop and restart the Check Point Firewall Service
B.Stop and restart the enVision NIC Collector Service
C.Verify that the Check Point Log Viewer is receiving events
D.Set an 8-character key to establish an authenticated connection
Answer:C

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NO.2 The UDS development process involves which of the following tasks? (Check two answers.)
A.Verifying XML syntax and parsing
B.Using XML to convert device logs to IPDB format
C.Mapping a device name to an existing enVision device
D.Creating an XML file to define header and message information
Answer:A D

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NO.3 What does RSA enVision do when it is set to auto-discover new devices? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Adds new supported devices automatically to the list of monitored devices in the Manage Monitored
Devices screen
B.Temporarily holds in the "New Device" cache and begins to collect data after it is approved by an
administrator
C.RSA enVision alerts members of the "administrators" group to add a new device to the list of monitored
devices
D.RSA enVision automatically exports device attributes to an XML file for an administrator to review
Answer:A

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NO.4 True or false. If a conflict exists with the default enVision collection port after appliance installation, the
Collector Service can be modified to configure event collection on a different port.
A.True
B.false
Answer:A

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NO.5 How many Remote Collectors (RC) can each Database Server (D-SRV) support? (Check the one best
answer.)
A.Eight (8)
B.Ten (10)
C.Sixteen (16)
D.Thirty two (32)
Answer:C

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NO.6 When opening a connection in Event Explorer, you can define which of the following features? (Check
the three correct answers.)
A.Devices
B.Event categories
C.Log messages
D.Time frame
E.Local collector
Answer:A B D

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NO.7 What two tasks does UDS complete when the command "uds reate" is executed to create a device?
(Check the two best answers.)
A.Creates the files .ini, client.txt, vendor.txt and msg.xml
B.Immediately starts collecting data from the new device
C.Identifies all associated devices that have been configured
D.Create all directory structures required for the device
E.Lists all devices to verify that the device does not already exist
Answer:A D

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NO.8 When initially setting up a multiple appliance site, only the D-SRV unit is connected to a LAN ?all of the
other units in the site then connect directly to the D-SRV.
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.9 Why would the checkbox of a device type be grayed out On the Manage Device Types screen? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It's not licensed
B.Device is unknown but data can be collected
C.Device is known but not compatible with enVision
D.Device is associated with a monitored device within the NIC domain
Answer:D

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NO.10 When would you expect a difference between the log information captured by RSA enVision and the
log information generated by a device? (Check the one best answer.)
A.When the source IP address of the device is unknown to enVision.
B.When the device is configured to send only certain events to syslog.
C.When "Collect All Logs" is left unchecked in the Manage Devices screen.
D.When the device is a known device and enVision recognizes the events to be non-critical.
Answer:B

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NO.11 What happens if an event source device type is not immediately recognized by RSA enVision? (Check
the one best answer.)
A.It will be defined as "unknown" and for a limited time enVision will collect event data it generates
B.Data from that device will be discarded until the device type can be defined
C.An alert is generated by default to call an administrator's attention to the device
D.The UDS Service will create a parsing XML file for the device and place data in the NIC Parse Cache
Answer:A

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NO.12 In the RSA enVision UDS process, what is the purpose of performing Data Reduction steps? (Check the
one best answer.)
A.Improve speed and efficiency of data processing
B.Compress unsupported device data prior to storage
C.Apply ISO-approved abbreviations to message text strings
D.Decrease the rate that unsupported device data is collected
Answer:A

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NO.13 After creating a customized Report Menu system, which RSA enVision service(s) need to be re-started?
A.Only the NIC Webserver Service
B.The NIC Webserver and NIC Server Services
C.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server and NIC Locator Services
D.The NIC Webserver, NIC Server, NIC Locator, and NIC Packager Services
Answer:A

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NO.14 In RSA enVision UDS development, Value Maps, Regular Expressions, and Functions are types of
which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Data Reduction
B.XML Parsing Rules
C.Conditional Variables
D.Summary Data Buckets
Answer:C

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NO.15 The administrator can use the RSA enVision's user authentication feature to complete what tasks?
(Check two answers.)
A.Use an existing Microsoft Active Directory authentication server
B.Associate administrative users with an authentication server
C.Require enVision users to change passwords on a periodic basis
D.Enforce a pre-defined set of 'prohibited passwords' based on a dictionary file
E.Utilize existing domain authenticated user accounts as the basis for enVision user accounts
Answer:A E

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NO.16 If a customer has a specific syslog that they would like to use as part of a demonstration, you can load it
into enVision for reporting and querying using which of the following? (Check the one best answer.)
A.The lsdata utility to import the syslog file
B.Copying the syslog file into the IPDB data directory
C.Using the Data Injector utility to collect data from the syslog file
D.Using the Custom Reports ?View External Data function of the administrative GUI
Answer:C

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NO.17 When creating a new enVision user account, which User Group is the account added to by default?
(Check the one best answer.)
A.Report-users
B.Administrators
C.Temporary-users
D.All-applications-users
Answer:D

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NO.18 What are three steps that are part of the device interpretation process using UDS? (Check the three
best answers.)
A.Configure devices to send log data to RSA enVision
B.Device identification (i.e. vendor, device name, class, sub-class, etc.)
C.Identification of device collection method
D.Message definition
E.List of known vulnerabilities
F.Data parsing
Answer:B D F

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NO.19 When planning an RSA enVision installation, which statements below about the Site Name are
important considerations? (Check two answers.)
A.The Site Name must match an enVision domain name
B.The Site Name must be unique within an enVision domain and cannot be the same as the customer's
NetBIOS domain name
C.The Site Name must not contain any numeric or punctuation characters
D.The Site Name must have the same suffix as the Windows domain in which it resides
E.The Site Name must not match the name of any existing Windows domain in the network
Answer:B E

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NO.20 Which RSA enVision module is used to configure the enVision system as well as to monitor its health
and performance? (Check the one best answer.)
A.Overview module
B.Alerts Module
C.Analysis Module
D.Reports Module
Answer:A

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Exam Code: 050-V71x-CSESECURID
Exam Name: RSA (RSA SecurID Certified Systems Engineer 7.1x Exam)
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Total Q&A: 71 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-30

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NO.1 Ninety (90) days after installation, if the initial Super Admin user's password is not
changed, the initial Super Admin user
A. is required to change their password before accessing both the Operations Console and Security
Console.
B. can access both the Operations Console and Security Console but is reminded to
change passwords after logon.
C. is allowed to access the Operations Console but is required to change their password
before accessing the Security Console.
D. is locked out of both the Operations Console and the Security Console until another
administrator re-sets the password and unlocks the account.
Answer: C

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NO.2 If an organization's general security policy specifies that certain RSA SecurID tokens will
be used without a PIN (tokencode only), this can be accomplished by editing the
parameters
A. in the records for individual tokens.
B. in the Realm Authentication Policy.
C. in the Security Domain Token Policy.
D. in the Security Domain Password Policy.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is true about the RSA RADIUS Server in an RSA
Authentication Manager version 7.1 environment?
A. A single RADIUS server can be configured to support multiple realms across a single
Authentication Manager deployment.
B. Once the RADIUS server is installed in an Authentication Manager environment, all
users default to using the RADIUS protocol for authentication.
C. If RADIUS is integrated with an Authentication Manager deployment, all users who
authenticate via RADIUS must be issued an RSA SecurID token.
D. If a RADIUS server is not installed at the same time as a Primary or Replica server, it
can NOT be added later without uninstalling and re-installing the Primary or Replica
software.
Answer: D

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NO.4 RSA Authentication Agents are typically installed and configured
A. only outside a corporate or internet firewall.
B. according to a general security policy and access control plan.
C. before the installation of the RSA Authentication Manager server.
D. before users have been assigned and trained on the use of RSA SecurID tokens.
Answer: B

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NO.5 When using an RSA Authentication Agent for PAM, which of the following statements is
true?
A. Users designated for RSA SecurID authentication must have root privileges.
B. A user's account must specify 'sdshell' to allow RSA SecurID authentication.
C. When installing the Agent for PAM, the services file must be edited to add
"securid_pam" as a TCP service.
D. Service, rule and module information to support RSA SecurID authentication are
contained in the pam.conf file.
Answer: D

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NO.6 If manual load balancing has just been set up for an Authentication Agent and it appears
that the Agent is not contacting the desired servers, it might be helpful to verify the
contents of the
A. sdopts.rec file.
B. sdconf.rec file.
C. sdstatus.12 file.
D. sdagent.rec file.
Answer: A

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NO.7 If the RSA RADIUS server is NOT installed at the time of the RSA Authentication
Manager software installation and the RADIUS function is needed at a later date,
(Choose two)
A. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server through the Operations Console.
B. it can be added to the Authentication Manager server using the add_rad_svr command
line utility.
C. it can be installed on a separate host and connected to the existing Authentication
Manager server.
D. Authentication Agents can be configured to proxy RADIUS transactions without the
need for a RADIUS server
E. it cannot be added to the Authentication Manager server without uninstalling then reinstalling
the server software.
Answer: C E

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NO.8 As part of the Primary server installation, the installer automatically backs up certain files
in the RSA Authentication Manager/backup/ directory. These files
A. include the system private key file.
B. hold the contents of the embedded database.
C. are used to install Replica servers and Server Nodes.
D. are deleted after the Primary services successfully start.
Answer: A

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NO.9 When planning an RSA SecurID system deployment, the Agents that will be required are
dependent on
A. the type of authenticator assigned to users in the system.
B. the variety and type of entry points to a given network or protected resource.
C. the total number of users that exist in all Authentication Manager Security Domains.
D. the communication (port) configurations of any firewalls separating Agent devices and
authentication servers.
Answer: B

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NO.10 To use an LDAP directory server as a source for user and group data in an RSA
Authentication Manager database,
A. an Identity Source can be mapped to the LDAP directory through the Authentication
Manager Operations Console.
B. individual data transfer jobs can be scheduled through the Scheduled Jobs function of
the Authentication Manager Security Console.
C. a data export can be initiated on the directory server to export users and groups to the
Authentication Manager database over a secure SSL connection.
D. a new LDAP schema is applied to the directory server to include the attribute
"cn=securid" to designate users to be transferred to Authentication Manager.
Answer: A

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NO.1 When a biometric system performs a one-to-one mapping, what is the systems doing?
A.Identification
B.Authentication
C.Classification
D.Detection
E.Recognition
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following are hash algorithms?
A.MD5
B.SHA
C.RSA
D.3DES
E.AES
Answer: AB

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NO.3 You are in the process of designing your PKI. You are working on the individual systems and servers
that you will need. Which machine that you install is designed simply to enroll new users into the PKI?
A.Certification Authority
B.Archive Server
C.Security Server
D.Registration Authority
E.Certification Repository
Answer: D

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NO.4 What is a unique benefit to using a File Viewer as one of your Forensics Tools?
A.You do not have to copy data files to your forensic machine for analysis
B.You do not have to worry about modifying the evidence in any manner
C.You are able to view the evidence files in HEX format
D.You do not need to have all the programs installed on your forensic machine to view evidence files
E.You are able to search for specific file types to which the O/S does not have application associations
Answer: D

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NO.5 Incidents are generally categorized as falling into attacks on the CIA triad. Which of the following three
attacks are the general categories?
A.Attacks against Integrity
B.Attacks against Confidentiality
C.Attacks against Availability
D.Attacks against Accuracy
E.Attacks against Collisions
Answer: ABC

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NO.6 If your goal is to make your CA issue certificates that have specific key usage, what can you use to
achieve this goal?
A.This can be done by using unique DNs for each key use that you want.
B.This can be done by using OIDs for each key use that you want.
C.This can be done by using unique CNs for each key use that you want.
D.This can only be done by selecting the key use options during the setup of the CA.
E.This can be done by installing the identifier file for each key use.
Answer: B

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NO.7 If you capture an 802.11 frame, and the ToDS bit is set to zero and the FromDS bit is set to zero, what
type of WLAN is this frame a part of?
A.Mesh
B.Broadcast
C.Infrastructure
D.Hierarchical
E.Ad Hoc
Answer: E

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NO.8 Which antenna type is best for extending the local range of an Access Point?
A.Yagi
B.Omni-directional
C.Di-polar
D.Parabolic
E.Mono-polar
Answer: B

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NO.9 What transmission system uses multiple frequencies combined together as a band?
A.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
B.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
C.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
Answer: E

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NO.10 What transmission system uses short bursts combined together as a channel?
A.Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum (FHSS)
B.Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum (DSSS)
C.Lamar Anthell Transmission (LAT)
D.Digital Band Hopping (DBH)
E.Digital Channel Hopping (DCH)
Answer: A

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NO.11 One of the many extensions in an X.509 digital certificate is called the SubjectKeyIdentifier. What is
this extension used for?
A.The extension is used to verify the SubjectPrivateKeyInfo
B.The extension is used to match the hashes of the SubjectKeyAlgorithm
C.The extension is used only when the certificate is used for code signing from a defined Subject
D.The extension is used when matching the hash value of the public key on the certificate
E.The extension is used only if the certificate is sent from a Root CA
Answer: D

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NO.12 What is the name of the option in Windows to hide, or append, a second file to a main file?
A.The Hidden Bit
B.Dynamic Link Libraries
C.NTFS Streams
D.File Associations
E.Hidden Server Management
Answer: C

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NO.13 What format is used to list the information that is contained in the Issuer field of an X.509 digital
certificate?
A.FQDN
B.X.500 CN
C.CA Name
D.X.500 DN
E.Position of the CA in the CA hierarchy
Answer: D

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NO.14 When Windows places a file on a FAT 16 partition, what does it look for, in HEX, to know that a file can
be placed in that cluster?
A.0000
B.FFFF
C.0001
D.000F
E.1111
Answer: A

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NO.15 Based on the provided image, what type of certification path will be used in this network?
A.Nested certification path
B.Hierarchical certification path
C.Functional certification path
D.Mesh certification path
E.Bridged certification path
Answer: D

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NO.16 When an OCSP responder provides a digitally signed response for each of the certificates sent to it by
the relying party in the original request, its reply consists of the certificate identifier, one of three status
values and a validity interval. What are the three status values?
A.Okay, Not Okay, Revoked
B.This Update, Next Update, Future Update
C.Good, Revoked, Unknown
D.Issuer
Public Key, Hash of the Private Key, Unknown
E.Issuer
Private Key, Thumbprint of the Public Key, Unknown
Answer: C

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NO.17 When you install and use PGP on your local computer, where is the key pair stored, by default?
A.secret.ring
B.public.ring
C./usr/bin/pgp
D.pubring.pkr
E.secring.pkr
Answer: DE

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NO.18 If you receive an X.509 digital certificate that has a unique identifier, but has no extensions, what
version is the certificate?
A.It is a Version 2 certificate
B.It is a Version 3 certificate
C.It is a Version 1 certificate
D.All X.509 digital certificates have unique identifiers
E.The unique identifier is determined by implementation, not version number
Answer: A

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NO.19 If a Certificate Authority is also designed to accept requests for certificates, then it can be termed as
what?
A.A Root CA
B.An Intermediate CA
C.A CA Hierarchy
D.A Registration Authority
E.A Repository
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the average size of a biometric template?
A.Between 10 and 100 KB
B.Between 100 and 500 KB
C.Less than 1 KB
D.Less than 3 bytes
E.Between 500 KB and 1 MB
Answer: C

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NO.21 What type of information can be learned from a user
COOKIES/index.dat file?
A.Their MAC address
B.Their IP address
C.Their email address
D.The websites they have visited
E.The user logon name
Answer: DE

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NO.22 When using the 3DES encryption ( C = E
?K1
[D
?K2
[E
?K1
[P]]] ) , what is the function of D?
A.D is the text before encryption
B.D is the first encryption key
C.D is the second encryption key
D.D is the decryption key
E.D is the text after encryption
Answer: D

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NO.23 If you wish to make your Windows user account use smart cards, where must you go to check this
option?
A.Active Directory Users and Computers
B.Computer Management, Local Users and Groups
C.Active Directory Sites and Services
D.Active Directory Security Services
E.On the Enterprise Certificate Server
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following numbers are Non-Prime Numbers?
A.23
B.2
C.24
D.39
E.17
Answer: CD

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NO.25 There are many certificate templates built into Windows 2000 Certificate Servers. Which of the
following user templates are valid for client authentication?
A.Smart Card Logon
B.Domain Controller
C.Authenticated Session
D.IPSec (Offline Request)
E.Smart Card User
Answer: ACE

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NO.26 What are the two primary types of token system?
A.Time-based
B.Passive
C.Challenge/Response
D.Active
E.Seeded
Answer: AC

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NO.27 Which of the following is not a category of Intellectual Property?
A.Patents
B.Trademarks
C.Copyrights
D.Manufacturing Standards
E.Trade Secrets
Answer: D

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NO.28 In PGP, there are two conditions that can be present to provide for the validity of a certificate. What
are these two conditions?
A.The certificate has been digitally signed by your local trusted root Certificate Authority.
B.The certificate is digitally signed by at least one completely trusted key holder, who has a valid
certificate.
C.The certificate is digitally signed by at least two of the marginally trusted key holders, who have valid
certificates.
D.The certificate has been digitally signed by the sender
trusted root Certificate Authority.
E.The certificate is digitally signed by the sender, who is authenticated by your local Certificate Authority.
Answer: BC

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NO.29 If you are going to build a PKI you will need many different components. What is an industry standard
that you can build your PKI upon?
A.Contiguous distinguished name spaces
B.X.509v3 Certificates
C.A defined hierarchy of authorities
D.128-bit SHA1
E.128-bit MD5
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of the following can be protected by a patent?
A.A new invention
B.A new product
C.A new process
D.A new name
E.An old product made in a new way
Answer: ABCE

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