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Exam Code: C_HANATEC131
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate (Edition 2013) - SAP HANA)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 You want to create a role that grants read-only access to the content of the system and
monitoring views and to statistics services.
Which of the following privileges should the role contain? (Choose two)
A. DATA ADMIN
B. ALTER for SQL schema _SYS_STATISTICS
C. SERVICE ADMIN
D. SELECT for SQL schema _SYS_STATISTICS
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 How can you delete old data and log backups from both the backup catalog and physically
from the server?
A. Delete all files under $(DIR_GLOBAL)/hdb/log
B. Run "DELETE from m_backup_catalog_files where backup_id = <backup_id>" in the SQL editor
C. Delete all files under $(DIR_INSTANCE)/backup/data and $(DIR_INSTANCE)/backup/log
D. Go to Backup Editor -> Backup Catalog -> Delete Older Backups -> Catalog and backup location
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which Linux kernel parameters need to be adapted during SAP HANA installation depending
on the SAP HANA system size?
A. net.ipv4.tcp_slow_start_after_idle and kernel.shmmni
B. kernel.shmall and fs.file-max
C. fs.file-max and net.core.wmem_max
D. net.core_rmem_max and kernel.sysrq
Answer: A

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NO.4 How can you make space available inside the log volume in a productive SAP HANA system?
A. Compress the log backups at file system level.
B. Set the log mode to Overwrite.
C. Perform log backups.
D. Delete log backups at the operating system level.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following would you use to upgrade an SAP HANA system and keep the
downtime to a minimum?
A. High availability
B. Storage replication
C. Partitioning
D. System replication
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following are characteristics of SAP NetWeaver Business Warehouse (SAP
NetWeaver BW) when it is migrated to run on the SAP HANA database? (Choose two)
A. The SAP NetWeaver BW application server can be installed on the SAP HANA hardware.
B. The current SAP NetWeaver BW application server hardware can be re-used.
C. All SAP NetWeaver BW 7.x application versions can be used.
D. The sizing of the current SAP NetWeaver BW application server remains valid.
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 You want to make sure that all data accesses to a specific view will be logged in the audit trail.
As part of an update of the database schema, the view is dropped and recreated under the same
name.
What is the consequence for auditing?
A. The audit log-object references must be reinitialized.
B. Auditing continues to work for the view.
C. The audit policy needs to be reactivated.
D. Auditing needs to be set up again for the recreated view.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following connection types does Direct Extractor Connection (DXC) use to
transfer data to SAP HANA?
A. RFC connection
B. Secondary database connection
C. http connection
D. BICS connection
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have to size an SAP HANA system for SAP NetWeaver BW. The SAP NetWeaver BW system
is currently running on a non-SAP RDBMS.
Which of the following factors influences the size of the SAP HANA system?
A. The partitioning of tables
B. The number of indexes
C. The size of aggregates
D. The number of tables in the row store
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following traces is active by default in SAP HANA?
A. SQL trace
B. Performance trace
C. Database trace
D. Expensive statements trace
Answer: C

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Exam Code: C_TPLM30_66
Exam Name: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Enterprise Asset Management (Maintenance & Repair) with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP6)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 80 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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Exam Code: 200-045
Exam Name: Isilon (Isilon Clustered Storage Professional Exam)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 You have a three node IQ 3000 cluster. How many phases of the restriper can be active at one time?
(Choose 1)
A.Three phases of the restriper can be active at one time.
B.Only one phase of the restriper can be active at one time.
C.Six phases of the restriper can be active at one time.
D.Nine phases of the restriper can be active at one time
Answer:B

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NO.2 SnapShotIQ is configured with default settings. You take a one-time snapshot called "test" of the
"/ifs/data" directory. In which of the following ways can you access this snapshot? (Choose 2)
A.Via the "/ifs/.snapshot/test" directory
B.Via the "/snapshots/data" directory
C.Via the "/ifs/data/.snapshot/test" directory
D.Via the "/ifs/data/copies" directory
Answer:A C

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NO.3 You have a cluster with the SnapshotIQ module licensed. The ability for users to view and access the
".snapshot" directories can be controlled per protocol. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
Answer:A

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NO.4 You have a three node cluster with SmartConnect configured. Which of the following is a correct
statement in regard to the SmartConnect virtual IP? (Choose 1)
A.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on the highest-numbered node of the cluster. If that node fails, the
virtual IP will move to node 1.
B.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on node 1. If node 1 fails, the virtual IP will move to node 2.
C.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on all nodes of the cluster.
D.The SmartConnect virtual IP moves dynamically between nodes of the cluster based on node
performance.
Answer:B

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NO.5 You have a three node cluster configured with +1, and are preparing to add a fourth node. Which of the
following describes the impact of adding the fourth node in regard to file striping? (Choose 1)
A.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 3+1 with four nodes.
B.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 2+1 with four nodes.
C.There is no impact to file striping for existing data, but new data will be striped 3+1
D.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 2+2 with four nodes.
Answer:A

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NO.6 The client workstations on your network are configured to use DNS server 10.10.10.1, which is
authoritative for the domain "isilon.com". You would like to configure SmartConnect with a zone named
"cluster.isilon.com". Your SmartConnect virtual IP is 10.10.10.100. Which of the following statements is
most accurate in regard to DNS and SmartConnect? (Choose 1)
A.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a delegation (NS) record delegating
"cluster.isilon.com" to the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
B.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a host (A) record resolving "cluster.isilon.com" to
the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
C.In order to utilize SmartConnect, the client workstations must be configured to use 10.10.10.100 as
their DNS server.
D.The SmartConnect service must be configured to use 10.10.10.1 as its DNS server
Answer:A

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NO.7 Which command line tool is used to manage replacing a failed disk drive? (Choose 1)
A.The "isi devices" tool
B.No command line tool is used - replaced drives are detected automatically by the node.
C.The "isi config" tool
D.The "isi disks" tool
Answer:A

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NO.8 Which of the following statements about SmartConnect Advanced is NOT correct? (Choose 1)
A.SmartConnect supports CIFS failover
B.SmartConnect supports NFS failover
C.SmartConnect allows individual nodes to be included or excluded from zones
D.SmartConnect is based on standard DNS
Answer:A

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NO.9 You have a three node cluster. The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is running. A disk drive fails.
Which of the following best describes the cluster's response to this failure? (Choose 1)
A.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper completes. Once AutoBalance is finished, the FlexProtect
phase of the restriper runs to repair data from the disk failure.
B.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is cancelled. The Collect phase of the restriper runs to repair
data from the disk failure. After Collect completes, AutoBalance is start.
C.Since the AutoBalance phase of the restriper is already running, it will repair data from the disk failure.
D.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is cancelled. The FlexProtect phase of the restriper runs to
repair data from the disk failure. After FlexProtect completes, AutoBalance is started
Answer:D

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NO.10 Which of the following commands can be used to view the status of restripe operations? (Choose 2)
A."isi status"
B."isi config"
C."restripe status"
D."isi restripe"
Answer:A D

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NO.11 Which of the following nodes has the highest ratio of performance per TB of storage? (Choose 1)
A.IQ 3000
B.IQ 6000
C.IQ 1920
D.EX 6000
Answer:C

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NO.12 You have a five node IQ 1920 cluster protected with +1. How many nodes of the cluster have to be up
in order for OneFS to allow writes to the file system? (Choose 1)
A.At least four nodes must be up
B.At least two nodes must be up
C.At least three nodes must be up
D.All five nodes must be up
Answer:C

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NO.13 SyncIQ throttle limits can be applied on a per-replication policy basis. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

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NO.14 Which of the following statements best describe the use of SNMP with an Isilon cluster? (Choose 2)
A.The cluster can be configured via SNMP
B.The cluster can generate SNMP traps based on Alerts
C.The cluster can generate SNMP traps based on configuration file changes
D.The cluster can be monitored via SNMP
E.The file system can be browsed via SNMP
Answer:B D

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NO.15 Which of the following commands can be used to start the FlexProtect phase of the restriper? (Choose
1)
A.Enter "isi config", then "flexprotect start"
B.Enter "isi config", then "restripe start flexprotect"
C."isi restripe start flexprotect"
D."isi flexprotect start"
Answer:C

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NO.16 You have a three node cluster. One node fails, and is in a "DOWN" state. How will the restriper
respond to this situation? (Choose 1)
A.The FlexProtect phase of the restriper will start automatically
B.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper will start automatically
C.The Collect phase of the restriper will start automatically
D.No phase of the restriper will start automatically
Answer:D

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NO.17 Which of the following best describes OneFS's NIC redundancy feature? (Choose 1)
A.NIC redundancy allows dynamic IP routing to occur between default gateways accessible via the
External-1 and External-2 networks.
B.NIC redundancy allows External-1 and External-2 to be aggregated into one logical link, so that either
NIC can fail without interrupting external network access.
C.NIC redundancy allows External-1 and External-2 to be utilized in an Active/Passive failover mode.
D.NIC redundancy allows clients to connect to the same file sharing protocols via either External-1 or
External-2.
Answer:B

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NO.18 Which of the following statements best describes the benefits of the file system journal in OneFS?
(Choose 1)
A.The file system journal is used for coalescing writes before committing them to disk.
B.The file system journal is used to store metadata about the file system in a reliable way.
C.The file system journal is used to permit multiple threads to commit writes to the same file.
D.The file system journal is used to ensure the consistency of the file system.
Answer:D

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NO.19 Which of the following methods can be used to verify connectivity to a LDAP directory server? (Choose
1)
A.From the command line of a node, use the "ldapsearch" utility.
B.From the command line of a node, enter "isi ldap config". Pick menu option 3 "Check server
connectivity".
C.From the WebAdmin of a node, go to "File System" / "Directory Services" / "LDAP Services". Click
"Check server connectivity"
D.From the command line of a node, enter "isi_ldap_check".
Answer:A

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NO.20 Which of the following best describes the expected behavior when attempting to add a node running
OneFS 4.5 to a cluster running OneFS 4.1? (Choose 1)
A.The node will be joined to the cluster.
B.You will be prompted to upgrade the cluster.
C.You will be prompted to either upgrade the cluster, or downgrade the node
D.You will be prompted to downgrade the node.
Answer:C

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NO.1 In discussing an organization's DHCP strategy, you find they distribute IP address assignment for IP
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Which two gateways are viable options to support the customer's DHCP strategy? (Choose two.)
A. G250 Media Gateway
B. G350 Media Gateway
C. G650 Media Gateway
D. G700 Media Gateway
Answer: AB

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NO.2 In a distributed S87xx Media Server system with G650 Media Gateways in 3 port networks, what is the
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A. Due to the length of the TDM cable, the slack must be coiled and secured to the back of the PN.
B. The TDM cable can be ordered to custom fit the system. The designer must know the PN to G650
layout.
C. If the incorrect cable length attribute is chosen, it will not allow the associated G650s to connect to the
PN.
D. Due to its limited length, each G650 of a PN must be co-located in the same 19 inch data rack as the
rest of the PN.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A client is implementing an S87xx Media Server with several G650 Media Gateways. They are
concerned with overheating in the equipment room, especially in the equipment power units.
Which two conditions cause a G650 power supply to initiate an emergency shutdown? (Choose two.)
A. overvoltage
B. overheating
C. undervoltage
D. high humidity
Answer: AB

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NO.4 Your client's department store business has 24 locations worldwide. Each location has its own
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extension numbers representing departments. The client is considering moving to a single, distributed
S8700 system but is concerned with the loss of dial plan functionalities.
How do you address the client's concern?
A. provide Uniform Dial Plan software
B. utilize ACM Multi-location Dial Plan software
C. create unique extensions per location for each application
D. relate that standard S87xx dial plan software will address the issues
Answer: B

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NO.5 A sales engineer completes an S87xx Media Server/G650 Media Gateway design which includes IP
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implementation team is the network region design.
What four IP endpoint characteristics may be included in the network region design document? (Choose
four.)
A. codec set
B. UDP port ranges
C. 802.1p/Q settings
D. VLAN assignments
E. identification of locations
Answer: ABCE

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NO.6 A customer wants to use an Avaya S87xx Media Server with Avaya G700 Gateways at remote
locations. Each G700 Gateway will include an S8300 Local Survivable Processor and approximately 75
IP sets incorporating G.711.
What Avaya feature allows IP sets to register with the S8300 if connectivity to the S87xx is lost?
A. Local CLAN board
B. Alternate Gatekeeper
C. S8300 Auto-Registration
D. Gateway Alternate Redirection
Answer: B

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NO.7 You have a corporate site with an S87xx Media Server in location A, and a remote site with an
G700/S8300 LSP processor in Location B. The WAN connection goes down.
In what sequence will the G700 register with the S8300?
A. Each H.248 gateway will reboot and register with the S8300 LSP when it comes back up.
B. The S8300 LSP processor reboots, and then notifies each H.248 gateway it is now the primary call
processor.
C. The S8300 LSP processor notifies each H.248 gateway in the media controller list that it is now the
primary call processor.
D. Each H.248 gateway will detect that the S87xx Media Server is not available and will reregister with the
next Media Server in the media controller list.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which three are QoS/CoS recommendations that the Avaya Solution Designer can make to
optimize an all Avaya Converged IP Solution? (Choose three.)
A. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points.
C. Port priority can also be used to enhance 802.1p/Q and DiffServ.
D. Mixed networks should choose only one (802.1p/Q or DSCP) as a best practice.
Answer: ABC

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NO.9 Which three should be investigated when validating a wireless network design? (Choose three.)
A. installed ductwork and walls
B. locations of network servers
C. other wireless networks in the area
D. operating system of user machines
E. environmental, moisture, temperature variations
Answer: ACE

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NO.10 A customer has an Avaya S87xx Media Server with an Avaya G650 Media Gateway. They want the
remote site tied-in to the main. The remote site has a DSL line for Internet access. They currently have a
secure VPN tunnel to the main site and want to implement VoIP over this tunnel.
What is your biggest concern as a designer?
A. NAT issues
B. implementation issues
C. Security cannot be guaranteed
D. Voice quality cannot be guaranteed
Answer: D

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NO.11 The customer has a multi node LAN with connectivity to a 16 location multi-vendor (Juniper, Cisco,
3Com and Avaya) WAN.
When implementing VoIP on this network, which two routing protocols should be implemented? (Choose
two.)
A. RIP
B. IGRP
C. ID 10t
D. OSPF
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Within an S8500 Server, 25 IP Telephony endpoints are connected to 10 digital sets, 10 IP sets, and 5
CO trunks.
How many TN2602 Media Processor boards are required if G.729 is incorporated?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: A

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NO.13 You are preparing to design an IP Telephony-based S87xx. You are assisting the client in determining
the type of QoS/CoS they should incorporate on their data network.
What do you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. Routed networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
B. Switched networks should use IEEE 802.1p/Q.
C. Mixed networks should use either DSCP or IEEE 802.1p/Q.
D. Routed networks should use DiffServ Code Points (DSCP).
Answer: BD

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NO.14 The S87xx platform is available as a net new system in which configuration?
A. Voice Bearer over ATM
B. Stand Alone (S87xx only)
C. Traditional G3R without IP
D. Voice Bearer over IP (IP Connect)
Answer: D

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NO.15 A customer is looking to add a remote location to the S8730. They will have six IP telephones that will
require PoE, two analog CO lines and require basic survivability. Which of the following would you
recommend?
A. G250 - analog / SLS
B. G250 - analog / LSP
C. G350 - analog / SLS
D. IG550 / SLS
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which two design issues relate to increasing security in VoIP converged solutions? (Choose two.)
A. suggesting upgrading LAN switches to support QoS
B. defining VLANs to limit access from specific IP endpoints
C. considering encryption on IP calls for protection from eavesdropping
D. considering G.729 compression to protect IP calls from eavesdropping
Answer: BC

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NO.17 Your client is considering a VoIP application for their S8500 Media Server and G650 Media Gateway.
Due to the time-sensitive nature of VoIP applications, several issues should be discussed prior to arriving
at a final design.
Which two VoIP guidelines should you discuss with the customer? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP should be implemented on an entirely switched network.
B. VoIP will cause some discourse due to lower voice quality than TDM calls.
C. VoIP endpoints should be placed on separate subnets or VLANs based on communities of interest.
D. When PCs are attached to IP phones, the uplink to the Ethernet switch should be at least 20 Mbps.
Answer: AC

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NO.18 If a customer has multiple systems from different vendors and wants to network them together, which
software should be used?
A. DCS
B. ARS
C. UDP
D. QSIG
Answer: D

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NO.19 An RFP for a Interactive Voice Response (IVR) unit and mid-sized communication system has been
released. You are responsible for determining the design solution. The RFP states that the IVR platform
must be engineered to handle 135 25-second messages during the busy hour. You calculate this
requirement to equal 47 ports.
If you provide 47 ISDN PRI trunks (two ISDN PRI facilities), which two traffic concerns must you consider?
(Choose two.)
A. No trunk growth is available on the ISDN PRI facilities.
B. 47 active trunks overload the two ISDN PRI facilities, seriously affecting traffic load and call
completions.
C. Considering there is only one channel for signaling, a backup D channel cannot be provided, affecting
traffic if the D channel fails.
D. ISDN PRI facilities direct from the central office limit the caller's ability to connect to the proper
resource, causing increased usage.
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Your customer solution requirements call for a mix of SIP and H.323 endpoints. Which entity in the SIP
Infrastructure can perform routing of sessions invitations, authentications and accounting functions?
A. SIP Proxy
B. SIP redirect
C. SIP registrar
D. SIP media gateway controller
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 132-S-911
Exam Name: Avaya (Specialist IP Telephony Implement and Support Elective Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 199 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 .A customer has purchased 20 Avaya IP telephones over a period of three years. Knowing that the
IEEE 802.3af standard has been ratified, the customer decided to purchase a C360-PWR switch
to provide in-line power to the IP telephones. However, only 15 of the phones power up when they
are connected to the C360-PWR. Upon investigation you discover the five phones which would not
receive power from C360-PWR are Generation 1 models that are not 802.3af compliant. Which
three methods should you use to power these phones? (Choose three.)
A. 356A adapter
B. Individual power brick
C. 1152A1 mid-span unit with adapter
D. Other vendor 802.3af compliant device
E. IP phone 4600 Ethernet 30A base switch
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which two Avaya Communication Manager commands display the VoIP statistics of a specific
extension active on call? (Choose two.)
A. Status station
B. Display station
C. List trace station
D. Display trace station
Answer: B

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NO.3 .Which Communication Manager (CM) feature utilizes PSTN connectivity when IP WAN bandwidth
limit has been reached?
A. Inter-Gateway Alternate Routing
B. Intra-Gigabit Analytical Resource
C. Intelligent Global Access Routing
D. Intelligent Gatekeeper Associated Routes

NO.4 .Which two parameters are found in an H.323 Signaling Group form? (Choose two.)
A. QoS parameters
B. A default gateway
C. The far-end network region
D. A TN799 C-LAN for call signaling
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 .You are migrating from a Definity server to an S8500/S87XX server. Where is the IPSI board
located?
A. It is always placed into slot number 1.
B. The location depends on which media server is used.
C. It can be slotted into any available media gateway slot.
D. The location depends on which media gateway is used.
Answer: C

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NO.6 .What color is the LED when a TN circuit pack is executing a test?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Amber
Answer: B

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NO.7 Within a single Avaya Communication Manager 4.0, how can you have conflicting four digit
extensions for separate locations in a four digit plan?
A. You insert an additional digit on the incoming trunk group form
B. You enter a different UDP code on the dial plan analysis form and take it off in the incoming
trunk group
C. You enter an extra digit on the dial-plan analysis and delete a digit in the routing pattern
D. You enter X where x is the location number on the uniform dial plan and prefix an additional first
digit; the changed number matches in AAR analysis and goes to a pattern
Answer: C

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NO.8 .DHCP option codes 128 to 254 are reserved for site-specific options. A single number out of this
range is commonly utilized by vendors to configure their Avaya IP phones via DHCP (Option 176).
Which additional option code supports vendor-specific options?
A. 3
B. 23
C. 43
D. 63
Answer: B

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NO.9 .You have a Communication Manager R3 1 phone system with all IP phones and there is no dial
tone. You verify that all of the hardware is working properly. Which two steps can you take to
identify the cause of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the MedPro board has the correct IP settings
B. Set a static IP address on you laptop and see if you can ping the TN799
C. Set a static IP address on your laptop and see if you can ping the TN2312
D. Set a static IP address on your laptop and see if you can ping the TN2302 or TN2602
Answer: C

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NO.10 .Your customer asks you to verify the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya G700
Media Gateway P330 stack management interface. Which command should you use to obtain this
information?
A. Session stack
B. Show interface
C. Show interface mgp
D. Show interface stack manager
Answer: A

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NO.11 .You have an S8720 Server optioned for Software Duplication. Which Ethernet port is the
Duplication Link assigned to?
A. Ethernet 1
B. Ethernet 2
C. Ethernet 3
D. Ethernet 4
Answer: A

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NO.12 .When configuring site specific option number (SSON) in DHCP server for an Avaya IP telephone,
"MCIPADD" is the address of the H.323 gatekeeper's IP address. In an Avaya IP telephony
solution, which component acts as the H.323 gatekeeper?
A. IPSI
B. S87xx Server
C. CLANs or S8300 Server
D. Router in the data network
Answer: B

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NO.13 .Your customer is unable to light message waiting lights at a small branch office using a shared
Intuity voice mail system on a QSIG network running DCS. What is the first command you should
execute?
A. list ip-interfaces
B. list media-gateway
C. display-ip-network-region <x>
D. status station <station number>
Answer: C

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NO.14 .In an IP Connect configuration, with hardware duplication, a customer has implemented
separation of the control network. What Ethernet port should be assigned to this control network?
A. Ethernet 0
B. Ethernet 1
C. Ethernet 2
D. Ethernet 3

NO.15 .A customer is using Avaya 4600 Series IP Telephones on an Avaya S87xx Server using several
TN799DP (CLAN) and TN2302 (Medpro) cards. Telephones located at a remote site are unable to
register with the CLAN. The CLAN can ping and be pinged. Which two commands or
troubleshooting methods can identify the problem? (Choose two.)
A. List sys-link
B. Status station
C. Listtrace ras station
D. Use a network sniffer between the phone and the network
Answer: B,C

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NO.16 .Which is a characteristic of a global VLAN ID?
A. Must have at least five digits
B. Can vary from one device to another
C. Supports QoS between multi-vendor WAN/LANs
D. Remains consistent across all VLAN tagging schemes
Answer: C

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NO.17 .A company purchases the right to use Avaya IP Softphone for 100 stations. The users complain
that the call center buttons (AUX, After-Call, Login, and Logout) programmed on their stations no
longer work as expected. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. TCP/UDP port blockage in the corporate WAN
B. Improper administration of the stations in the PBX
C. Users trying to use the application for non-supported functions
D. Improper installation of the Avaya IP Softphone application on the users' PCs
Answer: B

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NO.18 .In an Enterprise Survivable Server (ESS) scenario, how do you save translations to your ESS
server?
A. Savetrans
B. Savetrans all
C. Save ESS settings
D. Savetrans cluster ESS
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two statements about VoIP Monitoring Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP Monitoring Manager is a GUI-based tool that can chart historical graphs of audio
performance on VoIP endpoints
B. VoIP Monitoring Manager can be used to troubleshoot VoIP endpoints registration problems
and call signaling problems
C. the reporting interval of VoIP Monitoring Manager can be varied depending on the required
granularity of the performance statistics
D. VoIP Monitoring Manager is a text-based tool that has the look and feel of a CLI and can be
embedded into Cajun switches as an add-on feature
Answer: B

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NO.20 .Which two statements are true about DHCP? (Choose two.)
A. A DHCP server is required to configure all Avaya IP telephones
B. A DHCP server can be used to send the DNS server address to the client
C. One DHCP server is required for each subnet containing clients that require the service
D. A DHCP server is used to send an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address to
the client
Answer: A,C

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NO.21 .In an S87xx MultiConnect, Port Network 18 has no IPSI. Which command will show the IPSI that
is in control of that Port Network?
A. Status fiber 18
B. List ipserver-interface
C. Status port-network 18
D. Status sys-link 18a0101 current
Answer: C

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NO.22 .An Avaya IP phone is connected over a WAN link to the main office where the TN799 CLAN and
TN2302 IP Media Processor are located. The Avaya IP phone is registered properly on the CLAN.
A DCP phone calls the Avaya IP phone and the call is answered. The audio quality is poor in both
directions, but the call stays up until one of the users disconnects. Which two conditions cause this
audio quality problem? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient IP media processor resources
B. Use of the G.711 codec to transmit audio over the WAN link
C. Implementing Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) on the edge router
D. Intermittent connectivity between the Avaya IP phone and the CLAN
Answer: A,B

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NO.23 Prior to putting the system into service, you test the Local Survivable Processor (LSP) failover
capability on the G700 Media Gateway with an S8300 Server. If you unplug the network
connection to the G700 Media Gateway the G700 Media Gateway does not search for a
secondary CLAN or any other LSP. What should you do to ensure that LSP failover has been
properly configured? (Choose two.)
A. You should refresh the IP address
B. You should check the controller IP address
C. You should check the LSP transition points
D. You should run session mgc to bring up the Show Call Control Status screen
Answer: A,B

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NO.24 .A G450 Media Gateway can be controlled directly from an Avaya Server S8500C. What is the
associated license file functionality that needs to be included?
A. Processor Ethernet (PE)
B. PNC Duplication
C. Port Network Support
D. Processor and System MSP

NO.25 .You are working with the powerful concept of a network region section. Which three parameters
can be set on the IP network region screen? (Choose three.)
A. H.323 endpoint
B. SIP enabled endpoints
C. hairpinning and shuffling
D. UDP port range parameters
E. QoS parameters such as DiffServ/TOS and 802.1p/Q
Answer: B,C,D

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Exam Code: 6202.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Aura(TM) Contact Center Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 You are installing a standalone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) The Application will be
installed on a Windows Server 2008 operating system. As a part of the Windows Server 2008 operating
system preparation the IPv6 option needs to be removed What is one way to disable IPv6 functionality?
A. IPv6 is disabled by default on Windows Server 2008 operating system
B. Perform a NET USE IPV6 DISABLE within a command window
C. Under Control Panel, go to System and Security and remove IPv6 addressing
D. Right chick on the Local Area Connection Adaptor and select Properties, then clear the IPv6 check box
Answer: D

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NO.2 You are preparing a Windows 2008 Server for Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) and Server
Utility installation Which operation on the server can the Server Utility perform?
A. Perform event preferences
B. Perform database restores
C. Administer Contact Center Agent login credentials
D. Modify Real-Time Display interface parameters
Answer: A

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NO.3 A company is planning to implement a stand-alone Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) license
with 50 Voice Agents Which license type should the company purchase?
A. Essential
B. Nodal NCC
C. Nodal Enterprise
D. Corporate Enterprise
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which operating system features should be enabled in Windows Server 2008 operating system before
you install Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)?
A. Windows Server Backup for running CCMA Server Backups and Internet Information Services (IIS)
B. TFTP Client to Backup of the CCMA configuration files to remote TFTP Server and XPS Viewer to view
reports on the server
C. Storage Manager for SAN s for managing the remote backups and IIS
D. IIS and XPS Viewer to view reports on the server
Answer: A

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NO.5 In an Avaya Aura Contact Center, what does enabling Open do?
A. It permits agents to utilize the Avaya OpenQueue Desktop for agent skills that have agents logged in
with the correct training and knowledge sets to handle calls
B. It allows third parties including Contact Center MultiMedia (CCMM) to create, read, and delete
multimedia and voice contacts in Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS)
C. It gives agents and Call Center supervisors the ability to manage multiple simultaneous contact types
such as voice, outbound voice, email, chat, IM and voicemail
D. It provides extended call queuring functionality for the Avaya Aura Contact Center by implementing
the same functionality as the Automatic Call Distribution Queue including useful features like visualization
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which pre-installation preparations must be completed on a Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server
before installing Avaya Aura Contact Center server applications?
A. Enable IPV6 . Ensure SNMP is disabled. Enable NetBIOS. The ELAN card must be first in the binding
order
B. Enable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Enable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card
must the first in the binding order
C. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled. Disable NetBIOS. The Contact Center Subnet (CLAN) card
must be first in the binding order
D. Disable IPV6. Ensure SNMP is enabled .Disable NetBIOS .The ELAN card must be first in the binding
order
Answer: C

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NO.7 After completing the in installation of the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS), you want to display
the installation log. What is the path to this log?
A. D:\Avaya\Logs\PV|
B. C:\Logs\CCMS
C. C:\Avaya\Logs\Sysops
D. D:\Log\CMS
Answer: C

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NO.8 You have completed the stand-alone installation of Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA)
software on a fully prepared Platform Vendor Independent (PVI) server The CCMA cannot establish a
connection to the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) What is one of the first steps to troubleshoot
the problem.?
A. Reinstall CCMA
B. Ensure that the correct sys-admin password is being used
C. Change the IP multicast sending address on the CCMS server
D. Ensure that the CCMS and CCMA servers have been added to a domain
Answer: B

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NO.9 You are installing Contact Center Manager Administration (CCMA) on a standalone server. Which
statement regarding passwords associated with CCMA running on a Windows Server 2008 operating
system is true?
A. The iceAdmin user account can be deleted during the CCMA installation
B. The iceAdmin user account password must be established during installation of CCMA
C. If the iceAdmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as webadmin of any other
user
D. If the default webadmin password is changed, CCMA cannot be logged on to either as iceAdmin or as
any other user
Answer: B

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NO.10 In a SIP based Avaya Aura Contact Center, the Contact Center Manager Server (CCMS) supports
secure Transport Layer Security (TLS) communication When implementing Security Certificate
management for TLS in the CCMS, what is the first step that must be accomplished?
A. Create the Certificate Store in the CCMS
B. Apply the Signed Certificate to the CCMS
C. Create a Certificate Signing Request (CSR) file from the CMS
D. Apply the Certificate Authority (CA) Root Certificate to the CCMS
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 7003.1
Exam Name: Avaya (Avaya Communication Server 1000 for Avaya Aura Implementation Exam)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-01

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NO.1 You are installing a new Communication Server 1000E (CS 1000E) SA release 7x system for your
customer. They have asked you to implement the corporate Directory Feature during the installation.
A. SFTP must be disabled in LD 117.
B. Valid telephony accounts must already exist in Subscriber Manager.
C. The CS 1000E Call Server must be joined to security domain.
D. Centralized authentication must be disabled.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer wants to deploy an Avaya Server (CS) 1000 Rls. 7x system in Avaya Aura solution.
They plan to have the system support 50,000 users.
Which system type will meet the customer ¯ s needs?
A. CS 1000E Co-Resident Call Server and Signaling Server
B. CS 1000E Standard Availability (SA)
C. CS 1000E High Availability (HA)
D. CS 1000E High Scalability (HS)
Answer: D

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NO.3 A customer has a Communication Server (CS) 1000E Rls. 7 x system with a System Manager as the
primary Security Server that has been designated as a Deployment Server. The application file (.nai) has
been uploaded to the deployment manager library. The customer has added an element to the security
domain and wants to deploy software applications to the element.
With respect to deployment services, which statement is false?
A. Deployment Manager has logicto prevent applications beingdeployed on unsupported hardware
platform.
B. MAS application has its own separate .nai file.
C. IM & Presence application has its own separate .nai file.
D. MAS can be deployed on the same server as Session Manager.
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has deployed a Communication Server 100 Rls. 7x system at their site. The technician has
been asked to add the Call pickup feature to the 100 IP telephone in the sales department.
The customer wants to be sure active calls not lost when the changes are made.
Which Phones Configuration feature can be enabled that will ensure changes to the telephone are not
transmitted to the call server until the telephone are busy.?
A. Bulk change
B. Courtesy change
C. Group change
D. Template change
Answer: B

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NO.5 A technician is installing the Linux Base Operating System software on the CPDC server for the Avaya
Aura system and steps away while the software is loading. When the technician returns, he verifies that
the Linux base installation is complete and successfully installed.
What status can the technician verify to ensure the installation is successful?
A. There is no visible indication available.
B. The Linux server reboots and the FQDN login prompt appears.
C. The status of Linux Hardening items is displayed and the system reboots.
D. The Linux server reboots and the Linux Status Completion screen appears.
Answer: B

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NO.6 A customer with a Communication Server (CS) 1000E at Rls. 5.5 with two IPMG is upgrading the
system to CS 1000E SA release 7 x. The second media gateway includes a media Gateway Controller
card with one high density DSP daughter board.
How many voice channels does this configuration provide?
A. 32
B. 64
C. 96
D. 128
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer wants to build a new Ip node on their Communication Server (CS) 1000E system with three
Signaling Servers. This node will support virtual trunks, IP media services, TPS and personnel directories.
A technician logs into Elements manager to complete the configuration, after creating and saving the
node configuration, the transfer now option chosen, then the servers are selected, the start sync is
selected followed by restart application.
What is expected outcome from the system?
A. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the call servers, and INI files will be
transferred from the call server to the selected servers.
B. The node file will be transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers, and the INI files will be
transferred from the Call Servers to the selected servers.
C. The node file will be transferred from Signaling Servers to the Call Server, and the INI files will be
transferred from Call Servers to the Signaling servers.
D. The node will be transferred from Element manager to the call server, and INI files will be transferred
from Element manager to CallServer.
Answer: B

Avaya test questions   7003.1   7003.1

NO.8 A technician deployed a Communication Server 1000E with dual homing feature configured. Both the T
and 2T ports are connected on the media Gateway Controller (MGC) one connection is active to avoid
network loops.
Which two statements are true, if the connection to the active port on the MGC is host?
(Choose two)
A. The MGC will issue a link down error.
B. The MGC will switch to the active pert.
C. The MGC and CPPM will have no loss of service.
D. The MGC will switch to the active port after 12 seconds.
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 A technician on a Communication Server 1000E SA Rls. 7x cannot get a second media Gateway to
register with the Call Server. The call server and Media Gateway 1 sit in the same 19 inch rack while
Media Gateway 2 is in another building and connected via the computer IP network Media Gateway 2 can
ping the Call Server but cannot register. The network is suspected of having a firewall or port blocking
issue.
Which diagnostic tool will help to isolate and identify a firewall or port blocking issue between the call
server and Media Gateway 2?
A. Gryphon Tool
B. Packet Capture Tool
C. Linux PPP Tool
D. Linux Modem Configuration Tool
Answer: B

Avaya   7003.1   7003.1 exam dumps   7003.1

NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
A Communication Server 1000E Rls. 7 x customer is adding a new Human Resources department with
eight IP telephone users. The customer has asked for the telephones to be programmed with consecutive
Directory numbers (DNs) from their DID range (2000-2099).
Which numbers sequence is available to meet the customer ¯ s r equ ir e m en t s?
A. 2001-2008
B. 2010-2017
C. 2050-5057
D. 5091-2098
Answer: D

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