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Exam Code: HP2-H09
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Thin Clients)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 50 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Where do the data and applications reside in a thin client solution?
A. on the Internet
B. on a cluster of servers
C. on the client
D. in the data center
Answer: B

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NO.2 How should you present thin computing to your customers.?
A. as a set of product offerings
B. as a user-customizable solution
C. as a full-function computer infrastructure
D. as a business solution
Answer: D

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NO.3 How does thin computing address education-specific challenges?
A. by enabling the school IT department to run applications internally
B. by allowing schooladministratorsto pay for actual application usage on a subscription basis
C. by increasing interactive learning while budgets are being cut
D. by automatically implementing software upgrades and patches to keep content current
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-K19
Exam Name: HP (Selling HP Business Class Storage Solutions)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 The data stored on HP StorageWorks D2D Backup Systems resides on which media type?
A. SDLT tape
B. UltraSCSI disk
C. SATA disk
D. LTOUltrium tape
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer uses DAS for both Exchange and user flat files for about 100 users. Because all the storage
is in various locations, it is difficult to manage this configuration and increase capacity.
The customer wants to install a SAN to solve these problems, but cannot afford the cost and time it takes
to deploy a Fibre Channel SAN. The customer also has limited in-house expertise in managing a SAN.
Which solution should the customer consider for migrating application data while also providing file
serving for clients on the same system?
A. MSA2000i
B. AiO600 Storage System
C. ProLiant Storage Server DL380 G5
D. MSA2000fc
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which customer requirement helps determine when to implement an HP StorageWorks All-in- One
storage system versus a Modular Smart Array (MSA)?
A. use existing storage management staff expertise
B. connect easily into existingFibre Channel infrastructure
C. integrate with storage arrays in a SAN environment
D. integrate file serving and block-based access to storage
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which company profile most accurately reflects a mid-sized business-class customer?
A. 10 employees; up to $6 million annual revenue
B. 200 employees; $9 million annual revenue
C. 400 employees; $90 million annual revenue
D. 900 employees; $250 million annual revenue
Answer: C

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NO.5 Determining the stage in HP's Customer-Driven Sales Methodology (CDSM) an opportunity has
reached depends on accurately assessing where the opportunity is in the customer buying cycle. If an
opportunity is positioned in the customer buying cycle at the Evaluate Options stage, which stage in the
CDSM has it reached?
A. Stage 2 - Validate the Opportunity
B. Stage 4 - Develop and Propose Solution
C. Stage 5 - Negotiate and Close
D. Stage 7 -Won and Deploy
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-025
Exam Name: HP (HP Laserjet 9000 Series)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What are possible causes of the LaserJet 9000 printing blank pages? Select TWO.
A.no developing bias
B.defective fuser
C.no cartridge ground
D.defective laser shutter
Answer: C,D

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NO.2 What is the maximum stack height in the accumulator of the 3000-sheet stapler/stacker?
A.2.5 mm
B.no limit
C.5.5 mm
D.5.5 cm
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are troubleshooting a media-handling problem after a 66.xy.zz error code appears on the control
panel.What does the 66 indicate?
A.operating error
B.paper path jam
C.hardware malfunction
D.device type
Answer: D

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NO.4 What action should be taken when critical error messages are encountered on the control panel ¯
A.perform a cold reset
B.print an event log
C.cycle printer power
D.perform an engine test
Answer: C

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NO.5 If the Jetdirect functionality fails for the HP LaserJet 9050dn, you must ________ .
A.replace the Jetdirect ElO device
B.cycle power to reset the device
C.replace the formatter
D.download new firmware
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP3-C02
Exam Name: HP (HP Color Laserjet CP6015 and CM6040 MFP Service Qualification)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 28 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 Which CP6015 Series printer includes a hard drive?
A. CP6015x
B. CP6015xh
C. CP6015dn
D. CP6015de
Answer: B

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NO.2 What advantages do the CM6040f/30f bundles have over the base models.? (Select two.)
A. The f bundles have more RAM.
B. The f bundles have an analog fax.
C. The f bundles have a color display.
D. The f bundles have two extra input trays.
Answer: B, E

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of staple jobs accepted, within one job request, by the Stapler/Stacker
Output Bins?
A. 10
B. 30
C. 50
D. 100
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP2-E14
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Professional)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 60 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-30

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NO.1 What is the typical percentage profit margin for HP Care Pack Support Services compared with
HP products?
A. bigger
B. similar
C. smaller
D. depends on which HP Care Pack
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the correct sequence for a successful HP Care Pack Services sales process?
A. Introduce services, illustrate cost of downtime, relate value to customer objectives, compare
cost of service to cost of downtime, and reinforce credibility
B. Introduce services, relate value to customer objectives, reinforce credibility, illustrate cost of
downtime, and compare cost of service to cost of downtime
C. Introduce services, reinforce credibility, relate value to customer objectives, illustrate cost of
downtime, and compare cost of service to cost of downtime
D. Introduce services, illustrate cost of downtime, compare cost of service to cost of downtime,
reinforce credibility, and relate value to customer objectives
Answer: C

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NO.3 Why is it important to introduce services early in the sales cycle for an HP Integrity solution?
(Select three.)
A. You can provide higher services discounts early in the sales cycle.
B. if you do not, the competition might step in to provide the service solution
C. Your value proposition is stronger with services included from the beginning
D. The customer's budget may not be stretched later on to accommodate additional services.
E. The standard warranty, that provides basic protection against downtime and services, is an
important component to provide a complete solution
Answer: B,C,E

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NO.4 According to research, approximately what percentage of all helpdesk calls are related to
commercial printers?
A. less than 10%
B. more than 50%
C. more than 75%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: B

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NO.5 Can you improve your margin by including services at the point of product sales?
A. Yes. if you offer the right service.
B. No, if the customer does not ask for services, you must sell them at cost, so no margin is left
and the order margin percentage decreases.
C. No, because offering services together with the product means that you are not selling a
qualitative product and there is a risk of losing the total sale
D. Yes. the increased order value (extra 15% to 30%) has a positive impact on the total margin,
and a typical sen/ice margin is even higher than the product margin
Answer: D

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Exam Code: ST0-058
Exam Name: Symantec (Veritas Storage Foundations 5.1 for Windows (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 96 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 What is the smallest unit of storage in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. subdisk
B. plex
C. volume
D. partition
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that is a structured collection of
subdisks that represents one copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. dynamic disk
D. dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is one difference between a basic disk and a dynamic disk?
A. private region
B. application data
C. volume
D. resides on a single plex
Answer: A

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NO.4 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that is directly accessed by a
filesystem?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. subvolume
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.5 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows (SFW) component that represents the
available space that SFW can use to assign to volumes?
A. public region
B. private region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which advantage does the hot relocation feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows
provide?
A. rebuilding of redundancy when there is a disk failure
B. automatic synchronization of replicated data
C. fast synchronization of RAID 5 volumes after a system crash
D. optimized synchronization of stale volume data
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that holds a single complete
copy of the data?
A. plex
B. volume
C. subdisk
D. LUN
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which action in the Veritas Enterprise Administrator console should you use to move a set of subdisks
from one dynamic disk group to a new dynamic disk group?
A. Split Dynamic Disk Group
B. Remove Disks from Dynamic Disk Group
C. Move Dynamic Disk Group Objects
D. Join Dynamic Disk Group
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which advantage is provided by the Write-order Fidelity feature of Veritas Volume Replicator in Veritas
Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows?
A. consistent secondary volumes
B. fast resynchronization of mirrored secondary volumes
C. RAID 5 logging on secondary volumes
D. fast updates to secondary volumes
Answer: A

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NO.10 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows component that stores information about
virtual objects?
A. private region
B. public region
C. dynamic disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which command can you use to set the read policy on a plex in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. vxvol
B. vxplex
C. vxassist
D. vxedit
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which advantage does the FlashSnap feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. hardware-independent, point-in-time copies of data
B. hardware-independent, synchronous remote copies of data
C. fast recovery of disk group configuration
D. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which three advantages does the Veritas Volume Replicator feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1
for Windows provide? (Select three.)
A. hardware-independent copies of data that are consistent
B. dynamic bandwidth throttling
C. sharing of disk groups across heterogeneous systems
D. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
E. replication over multiple TCP connections
Answer: ABE

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NO.14 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout where data is arranged both
sequentially and contiguously within a single plex?
A. concatenation
B. striping
C. mirroring
D. RAID 5
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows virtual object that contains plex objects?
A. volume
B. subdisk
C. disk group
D. dynamic disk
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows volume layout that achieves redundancy by
striping data with parity across multiple disks?
A. RAID 5
B. striped mirroring
C. concatenation
D. mirroring
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which advantage is provided by the SmartMove feature in Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. reduction of mirror synchronization time
B. rebuilding of redundancy in the case of a disk failure
C. automatic failover in the case of a path failure
D. consistent secondary volumes using Veritas Volume Replicator
Answer: A

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NO.18 What is a best practice when installing Dymanic Multi-pathing for Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows?
A. have a single physical path to storage
B. turn off the hardware cache on external storage
C. have all physical paths to storage enabled
D. physically remove all the HBAs from the server
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which advantage does the VxCache feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for Windows provide?
A. improved performance of dynamic volumes
B. hardware-independent, up-to-date remote copies of data
C. tiered storage of data across multiple disk arrays
D. fast recovery of disk group configurations
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which advantage does the Data Change Object (DCO) feature of Veritas Storage Foundation 5.1 for
Windows provide?
A. optimized resynchronization of stale volume data
B. ability to grow volumes online
C. control of volumes across heterogeneous systems
D. fast resynchronization of mirrored volumes after a system crash
Answer: A

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Exam Code: ST0-052
Exam Name: Symantec (Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows (STS))
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Total Q&A: 158 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-01-29

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NO.1 Which two actions can you perform on a selection list when running in a Central Admin Server Option
(CASO) environment? (Select two.)
A. restrict backup to specific devices on media servers
B. restrict which users can run restore jobs
C. restrict backup to media servers in a pool
D. restrict which media servers can run duplicate jobs
Answer: AC

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NO.2 Which option or agent was enhanced to support Windows Server 2008 Read Only Domain Controllers
(RODC)?
A. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
B. Agent for Microsoft SharePoint
C. Active Directory Recovery Agent
D. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is a benefit of using preallocation in a backup-to-disk folder?
A. reduces file fragmentation
B. assigns media to backup jobs
C. assigns a backup-to-disk folder to a duplication job
D. prevents a job from running low on disk space
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two periods must be defined when creating a Symantec Backup Exec 12 media set?
A. append and overwrite protection periods
B. system and overwrite protection periods
C. retention and overwrite protection periods
D. append and retention periods
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which three options are available for Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select three.)
A. Backup Exec SAN Media Server Option
B. Backup Exec System Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec Inline Tape Copy Option
D. Backup Exec Desktop Laptop Option
E. Backup Exec Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
Answer: BDE

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NO.6 Which database component is installed with Symantec Backup Exec 12?
A. Microsoft SQL Server 7
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 (SP-3a)
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005 Express Edition
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which three security attributes does Symantec Backup Exec 12 designate for its service account or an
existing user account during installation? (Select three.)
A. domain administrator
B. backup operator
C. create a token object
D. administrative network
E. event viewer operator
Answer: ABC

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NO.8 What are three types of templates? (Select three.)
A. Duplicate Backup Sets template
B. Export Media template
C. Synthetic Backup template
D. Erase Media template
E. Import Media template
Answer: ABC

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NO.9 When does a media's overwrite protection period begin?
A. at the time of the last write to the media
B. when the media is allocated to the media set
C. at the time of the first write to the media
D. when the media is ejected from the drive
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are three features of the Central Admin Server Option (CASO)? (Select three.)
A. distributed catalogs
B. administration of NetWare media server
C. load balancing across media servers
D. management of other central administration servers
E. centralized catalogs
Answer: ACE

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NO.11 What are three advantages of using the working set backup method? (Select three.)
A. requires fewer media to restore
B. requires less time to perform than a full backup
C. includes data that have been accessed in a specific number of days
D. provides a current backup of the entire system in one backup set
Answer: ABC

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NO.12 Which components make up the basic Symantec Backup Exec 12 installation?
A. Central Administration Server (CAS), media server, storage devices, and media
B. media server, Administration Console, domain controller, and clients
C. Central Administration Server (CAS), Administration Console, storage controllers, and media
D. media server, Administration Console, storage devices, and clients
Answer: D

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NO.13 What are three functions that the Symantec Backup Exec 12 media server performs? (Select three.)
A. controls and manages backup and restore operations
B. controls authentication and access to the SAN disk storage
C. maintains the Backup Exec 12 database
D. attaches to and controls storage device hardware
Answer: ACD

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NO.14 Where can you find a list of all the media that is required for a restore job?
A. All Media node
B. media set
C. Reports tab
D. media vault
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which two backup methods can reset the archive bit on files? (Select two.)
A. working set
B. differential
C. full
D. incremental
Answer: CD

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NO.16 How do you back up data residing on a network share that is not visible in the backup selections?
A. change the security of the network share to "full control"
B. add the UNC path in user-defined selections
C. install the Network Share Publishing Agent
D. install the NDMP option on the computer hosting the network share
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 Agent/Option is necessary for encrypting a backup?
A. Advanced Device and Media Management (ADAMM)
B. Central Admin Server Option (CASO)
C. Advanced Open File Option (AOFO)
D. Remote Agent for Windows Systems (RAWS)
Answer: D

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NO.18 What are three supported processor types for installing/running Symantec Backup Exec 12? (Select
three.)
A. AMD
B. Itanium
C. Pentium
D. Xeon
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 If the overwrite protection period is current, when can media be overwritten? (Select three.)
A. when the overwrite protection level is set to None
B. when the media is erased, formatted, or labeled
C. when the media is associated with the Scratch media set
D. when the append period is expired
Answer: ABC

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NO.20 What do backup-to-disk folders provide? (Select three.)
A. faster method to back up and restore data
B. concurrent jobs to the same backup-to-disk folder
C. encryption when using Granular Recovery Technology
D. backup-to-disk with scheduled duplication to tape
Answer: ABD

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NO.21 You need to restore data from a family of three tapes. The first tape is missing.
Which option should you change to allow the remaining tapes to be cataloged?
A. "Request all media in the sequence for catalog operations"
B. "Use storage media-based catalogs"
C. "Enable direct access recovery"
D. "Associate media with 'Imported Media' media set"
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which three properties can you configure when creating a media set? (Select three.)
A. overwrite protection periods
B. media vault rules
C. bar code rules
D. append periods
Answer: ABD

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NO.23 Which backup method should you use to back up only the files that were changed today?
A. full
B. working set
C. archive
D. differential
Answer: B

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NO.24 Which statement is true about performing a granular restore of an Active Directory object to a Windows
2008 Read-Only Domain Controller (RODC)?
A. Granular restores of individual objects to the RODC are NOT allowed.
B. The Windows Active Directory service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
C. The individual object must first be restored to the Windows Active Directory Lightweight Directory
Service (Ad LDS).
D. The Windows VSS service on the RODC must be stopped before the restore starts.
Answer: A

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NO.25 What are three consequences of doing only full backups? (Select three.)
A. only allows full restores
B. redundant backups
C. takes more time
D. requires more media
Answer: BCD

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NO.26 Which type of backup is used for an online database?
A. snapshot
B. flat
C. active
D. cold
Answer: A

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NO.27 If you use Symantec Backup Exec 12 to remove media from a device or slot, which location displays
the media?
A. online media
B. offline media
C. user-defined media vault
D. Scratch media set
Answer: B

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NO.28 With which two backup methods can the option "use the Microsoft Change Journal if available" be
used? (Select two.)
A. archive
B. incremental
C. differential
D. working set
Answer: BC

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NO.29 What are two characteristics of the default media set named <span style="font-style: italic;">"Keep
Data Infinitely - Do Not Allow Overwrite"? (Select two.)
A. applies to all backup jobs until you create another media set
B. allows data to be appended to media for 90 days
C. cannot change the defaults for this media set
D. requires continuous introduction of Scratch Media unless you change the defaults
Answer: AD

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NO.30 Which statement is true about removable backup-to-disk folders?
A. They can exist on tape or disk media.
B. They can span multiple media.
C. Performance is significantly enhanced.
D. Only USB is supported.
Answer: B

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