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Exam Code: 1z0-584
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle Fusion Human Capital Management 11g Human Resources Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 129 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 You are working on Implementing Fusion Human Capital Management. Some of the work
structures and need to be configured manually. Enterprise, Business Units, Legal Entities, Reference
Sets, and Legislative data Group will be part of this manual setup.
Identify the correct sequence of steps to be followed for this setup.
A. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets >
Define Legislative Data Group.
B. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Business Units > Define Reference Sets >
Define Legislative Data Group.
C. Create Enterprise > Define Business Units > Define Legislative Data Group > Define Legal
Entities > Define reference Sets.
D. Create Enterprise > Define Legal Entities > Define Reference Sets > Define Business Units >
Define Legislative Data Group
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to display a new field of sensitive data to display salary information. Which security
policy controls access to the field displayed by the component?
A. Function Security Policy
B. ADF Security expression language
C. Data Security Polity
D. Oracle Platform Security Policy
Answer: C

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NO.3 As a line manager you have 10 direct reports. You have certain work scheduled that needs to
be
completed in the coming week. You have identified three of your reports to complete the task and
you would like to check for their availability in the coming week.
Which report will give you a snapshot of their availability?
A. My Organization
B. Leave Availability
C. Worker Availability
D. Predicted Worker Performance and Attrition
Answer: C

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NO.4 Identify the two applicable model profiles for workforce structures.
A. Jobs
B. Individual worker
C. Position
D. Department
E. Location
F. Business unit
Answer: A,C

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NO.5 What are the three benefits of Oracle Fusion Applications using a Lightweight Directory Access
Protocol (LDAP) system?
A. enforces the principle of least privilege
B. segregates duties to be more rigorously enforced
C. allows principles of assured revocation to be more rigorously enforced
D. extends the database concept of a grant to applications
E. uniquely identifies a single person
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.6 Identify the four business subprocess offered under the workforce Deployment category of
the Oracle Fusion HCM family.
A. Manage Absence
B. Manage Global Workforce
C. Manage Worker Performance
D. Manage Social Networking
E. Manage Workforce Profiles
F. Manage Workforce Life Cycle
Answer: A,D,E,F

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NO.7 What Oracle Fusion Middleware features maximize the security of Fusion Applications?
A. Improved productivity, manageability, and responsibility
B. Improved extensibility, responsibility, and functionality
C. Improved productivity, adaptability, and manageability
D. Improved sustainability, adaptability, and extensibility
E. Improved adaptability, extensibility, and functionality
Answer: B

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NO.8 Select the four products offered as part of the Oracle Fusion HCM product family under the
business process category of Workforce Development.
A. Profile Management
B. Performance & Goal Management
C. Time and Labor
D. Talent Review
E. Network at Work
F. Learning Management
Answer: A,B,D,F

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Exam Code: 1Z0-511
Exam Name: Oracle (Oracle E-Business Suite R12 Project Essentials Exam)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which types of rate schedules should be defined to allow rates to be used to generate
financial
plans?
A. Job Labor Rates ScheduleNon Labor Rate Schedule
B. Resource Class SchedulePlanning Rate ScheduleLabor Rates Schedule
C. Resource Class ScheduleLabor Rates ScheduleNon Labor Rate Schedule
D. ResourceClass SchedulePlanning Rate ScheduleNon LaborRates Schedule
Answer: C

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NO.2 You are setting up an AutoAccounting rule and trying to use "Class Code" as the parameter for
that rule. Which setup must exist in order to use "Class Code" as one of the parameters?
A. Enable AutoAccountingfor one ClassCode ofaClassCategory.
B. EnableAutoAccountingforall the Class Codes ofaClassCategory.
C. Enable AutoAccounting for the Class Category.
D. Enable AutoAccountingfor both Class Category and Class Code.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Identify two predefined transaction sources that Oracle Projects uses to import the
transactions
generated within Oracle Projects.
A. Oracle Interproject Supplier Invoices
B. Oracle Projects Intercompany Supplier Invoices
C. Project Allocations
D. Capitalized Interest
E. Oracle Interprojed Customer Invoices
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Identify two ways to ensure that correct class category codes are recorded against relevant
projects.
A. Define as single template that has the class category already defined.
B. Define the class category as mandatory on relevant project types.
C. Define the class category as mandatory In the quick entry of the relevant templates.
D. Define a project status workflow that checks whether the class category is
definedbeforechanging a project status.
E. Includea"Not applicable" code in the class category definition.
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 The Profile option "PA: Cross Project User-Update" is set to "Yes" for a Projects module user.
Which two statements apply?
A. The use must be named as a Key Member on a project to be able to see Summary Labor
Costs.
B. The userwill be able to update projects across all Operating Units.
C. The userwill be able to update only the projects belonging to the same Operating Unit to which
theuser belongs.
D. Theuserview SummaryLaborCosts forall projects.
E. The user must alsohave Organization Authority forall Operating Units to updateall projects.
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 A company generates revenue at period end, but bills monthly in arrears. The first project
revenue
is due to be recognized at the end of May and the first invoice sent to the customer in June. What
are the accounting entries at the end of May?
A. Debit: Cost of Goods SoldCredit: Unbilled Receivables
B. Debit: BankCredit: Revenue
C. Debit: Unearned RevenueCredit: Revenue
D. Debit: RevenueCredit: Accounts PayableLiability Account
E. Debit:UnbilledReceivablesCredit: Revenue
Answer: E

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NO.7 Your client has expressed a desire to produce and summarize invoice lines for Non-Labor
transactions by type of expenditure based on high level tasks of the project.
Which invoice formal grouping should he used to achieve this?
A. TopTask,ExpenditureType
B. TopTask,Employee
C. Revenue Category,Expenditure Category, Top Task
D. TopTask,Expenditure Category
E. TopTask, Revenue Category, Expenditure Category,Expenditure Type
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 1Z0-466
Exam Name: Oracle (Project Lifecycle Management Essentials)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 98 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 According to the recommended training for this exam, what is the definition of a project?
A. A sequence of tasks with a beginning and an end, bound by time, responses, and desired results
B. Anything for which there is an executed contact
C. A sequence of tasks for there is a Statement work
D. A sequence of tasks with a specified end date
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which is true about OUM Manage?
A. It emphasizes clearly documenting the scope of the project and the exact procedures to
implement changes to this scope.
B. It is not possible to control the project timeline without a detailed project plan.
C. It is necessary to only document the items in the scope.
D. If the project sponsor requires a functional change, the project team must comply with the
request.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
The Manage focus area is organized into 13 processes: Bid Transition (A)Scope Management
Financial Management
Work Management Risk Management Issue and Problem Management Staff Management
Communication Management Quality Management Configuration Management Infrastructure
Management Procurement Management Organizational Change Management
Collectively, these processes form a comprehensive set of tasks required to manage Oracle-based
development and implementation projects. Every project includes most, if not all, of these
processes, whether they are the responsibility of a consulting organization, a client organization, or
a third party.

NO.3 Tasks in the Project Execution and Control phase are ongoing. How often they are executed?
A. In each iteration
B. Three times
C. Five times
D. At the beginning of each week
E. As needed
Answer: A

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NO.4 What describes the nature of the activities within the Project Execution and Control phase?
A. They are dependent upon one another.
B. They are dependent upon earned value.
C. They are ongoing.
D. They are grouped according to priority.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which is the type of closure described as the mechanical an analytical step associated with the
closure of a project or phase?
A. Contractual
B. Typical
C. Intra-business
D. Conventional
Answer: A

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NO.6 At the end of iteration phase, during Project Execution and Control, which three key tasks
should be conducted?
A. QM.050 Perform Quality Assurance
B. WM.050 ManageApprovals
C. CMM.030 Manage Project Team Communication
D. PKM.020 Conduct Baseline Risk Assessment
E. SM.060 Close Scope management
F. PKM.060 Conduct Post-Production Risk Assessment
G. OCHM.040 Establish Follow-Up process
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 Select the three key project roles as prescribed by OUM Manage.
A. Stakeholder
B. Change Control Board
C. Issue Review Board
D. Project Team
E. Testing Committee
Answer: A,B,D

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Explanation:
A:Project managers use OUM to make sure they and their stakeholders develop a shared
understanding of what is needed, choose an appropriate architecture, and transfer the ownership of
the end-product to the stakeholders.
B:CCB(Change Control Board)is a review committee that discusses and approves requests for
changes to On Demand customer system configurations. The change requests are fulfilled in the
following ways:
A work guideline is generated by engineering for operations to use and implement.
The changes are included in Oracle Certified Configurations.
D:Project teams to take advantage of this experience by

NO.8 What is not true about planning in OUM?
A. OUM has been developed with the intent that the approach for a given project be built up from a
core set of activities.
B. Projects should be tailored down from the full OUM work breakdown structures.
C. OUM takes an iterative and incremental approach to planning a project.
D. Tasks within OUM are considered place holders for work.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Incorrect: Not A:OUM is designed to support a broad range of project types. As such, it must be
flexible andscalable. The appropriate point of balance for a given project will vary based on a
number of project risk and scale factors. The method has been developed with the intent that the
approach for a given project be "built up" from a core set of activities to implement an appropriate
level of discipline, rather than "tailored down".
Not C:OUM recognizes the advantages of an iterative and incremental approach to development
and deployment of information systems. Any of the tasks within OUM may be iterated. Whether or
not to iterate, as well as the number of iterations, varies. Tasks may be iterated to increase quality of
the work products to a desired level, to add sufficient level of detail, or to refine and expand the
work products on the basis of user feedback.

NO.9 What is not true about risk management in OUM Manage?
A. The project manager should regularly conduct risk assessments.
B. Risks become even more critical during the Project Execution and Control Phase.
C. Particular attention should be paid to risks prior to production cutover.
D. If a baseline risk assessment is done during the Project Startup phase, there are no further risk
assessment required on the project.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: UM0-100
Exam Name: OMG (Omg-Certified uml professional fundamental exam)
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Total Q&A: 168 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 What does an association specify?
A. tuples that are not links
B. relationship among models
C. links between associated types
D. links between instances of associated types
E. links between instances of untyped classes
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is an element in UML 2.0?
A. member of a set
B. instance of a class
C. constituent of a model
D. abstract metaclass with only one superclass
E. substance not separable by ordinary chemical means
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is true of the black diamond on the diagram? (Choose two)
A. A Line Item cannot be removed from its Order.
B. A Line Item may only be included in one Order at a time.
C. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances normally still remain.
D. If an Order is deleted, its Line Item instances are normally deleted.
E. A Line Item may only be included in more than one Order at a time.
Answer: BD

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NO.4 What is an expression in UML 2.0?
A. comment placed on a diagram
B. symbol or symbols signifying a set of value
C. graphical addition to a diagramming element
D. language-specific string used to describe the meaning of a diagram
E. language-specific text string used to describe the contents of a diagram
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is true of the import example in the exhibit?
A. Webshop is imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary and Types.
B. Auxiliary and Types are imported into ShoppingCart, but neither can be further imported into WebShop.
C. Public members of WebShop are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into Auxiliary
or Types.
D. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and then further imported into
WebShop.
E. Public members of Types and Auxiliary are imported into ShoppingCart and those from Types are
further imported into WebShop.
Answer: E

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NO.6 A property is a feature that can be represented in what ways? (Choose two)
A. as an association
B. as an association end
C. as an attribute in a class
D. as an operation in a class
E. as an indication of whether the feature is public or private
Answer: BC

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NO.7 Constraints are shown using what symbols?
A. [ ]
B. ( )
C. { }
D. ?"
E. " "
Answer: C

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NO.8 The instance diagram in the exhibit contains father and son without underlines. What is the meaning of
this?
A. The Don class is a superclass of the Josh class.
B. An association having end names father and son.
C. The diagram is a mixture of class and instance diagrams.
D. A link of an association having end names father and son.
E. The names are incorrectly specified, because underlined names are required.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In the exhibit, what is the meaning of size in these two diagrams?
A. Only one or the other should be used, not both, in order to avoid a name conflict.
B. The size end name on the association indicates data storage and the attribute does not.
C. There is one size property diagrammed both as an attribute and as an association end.
D. There are two size properties that have no name conflict as long as each size is private.
E. The size attribute in the class indicates that it will be stored within the class and the end name does
not.
Answer: C

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NO.10 What are the association end names in the exhibit?
A. Person and Order
B. customer and Order
C. 1 and *
D. 1, *, customer, and Order
E. 1, *, customer, order, Person, and Order
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is true about a comment in UML 2.0? (Choose two)
A. is shown as a note symbol
B. must be attached to at most one element
C. contains only machine-readable symbols
D. can be attached to more than one element
E. connections are always shown with a dashed line
Answer: AD

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NO.12 What are some of the important semantics of packages? (Choose three)
A. A class may be owned by multiple packages.
B. An element may be owned by at most one package.
C. The public contents of a package are accessible outside the package.
D. The public contents of a package are not accessible outside the package.
E. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are removed.
F. If a package is removed from a model, the owned contents are reassigned.
Answer: BCE

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NO.13 What statements are true of the <<permit>> dependency in the exhibit? (Choose two)
A. X can access only the baz property of W.
B. X can access the baz and quux properties of W.
C. X can access only the quux property of W.
D. W can access only the foo property of X.
E. W can access the foo and bar properties of X.
F. W can access only the bar property of X.
Answer: BF

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NO.14 What does it mean when a classifier rectangle is labeled as an <<enumeration>>?
A. The list of all public and private features is provided.
B. The classifier is an iterator for traversing a collection.
C. The list of all public and private structural features is suppressed.
D. The classifier is a data type whose values are possibly listed in the bottom compartment.
Answer: D

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NO.15 What is true about every named element that is a member of a namespace?
A. It is owned by the namespace.
B. It has one unique name within the namespace.
C. It is identified by its name within the namespace.
D. It can be distinguished from other members in the namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.16 What does a <<use>> dependency mean in a relationship between one element and another?
A. specifies how it uses another element
B. specifies how it realizes another element
C. specifies how one element implements another element
D. requires another element for its full implementation or operation
Answer: D

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NO.17 What does the arrow end of a dependency relationship indicate?
A. more general classifier
B. element initiates communication
C. whole in a whole-part relationship
D. client element is affected by a change in the supplier element
E. supplier element is unaffected by a change in the client element
Answer: E

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NO.18 What does an {ordered} designator do for a multiplicity?
A. specifies that values are sequentially ordered
B. specifies an inclusive interval of non-negative integers
C. indicates the correct sequence of messages in a sequence diagram
D. indicates that the upper bound must be greater than the lower bound for the multiplicity
Answer: A

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NO.19 What is a relationship in UML 2.0?
A. the state of being related
B. an element that has no derived union
C. an element that has no derived composition
D. an element that must have two owned elements
E. an element that specifies a connection between elements
Answer: E

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NO.20 What is the meaning of the subsets constraint in the diagram?
A. D is a subclass of B.
B. D contains a subset of instances of C.
C. The collection of b is a subset of the collection of d for each A.
D. The collection of d is a subset of the collection of b for each C.
E. The collection of c is a subset of the collection of b for each D.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 050-664
Exam Name: Novell (Novell edirectory design and implementation)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 140 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 What does the following WAN Traffic Manager policy control? TCPIP, NA
A.Prevents background traffic generated by TCP/IP
B.Prevents background traffic unless the traffic is generated by TCP/IP
C.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic is in the same TCP/IP network area
D.Restricts TCP/IP traffic unless the traffic comes from a different TCP/IP network area
Correct:B

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NO.2 What is a good recommendation to follow when designing partitions for lower layers in the tree?
A.Create a partition for each container.
B.Partition the Directory by function regardless of location.
C.Use organizational divisions and workgroups to define lower-level partitions.
D.Place all servers, including servers at different locations, in the same partition.
E.Partition the Directory with more partitions at the top and fewer partitions at lower-levels.
Correct:C

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NO.3 Perform the following drag-and-drop task. Begin by clicking the Drag-and-Drop button. When
you finish, continue to the next question by clicking the Next button. Listed are administrator
roles and their characteristics. Drag the administrator role to its characteristic.
Correct:
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice2

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NO.4 You have completed a tree merge and want to confirm the new tree name by ensuring that all
servers in the tree are configured to support the new tree. Which utility will provide you the status
of every server in the tree and the name of the tree it is servicing?
A.DSMAINT
B.DSMERGE
C.DSREPAIR
D.ConsoleOne
E.NDS Manager
Correct:B

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NO.5 After you create object naming standards, what should be defined for the attribute standards?
(Choose 2.)
A.Which object types require attributes
B.Whether the attribute of an object is required
C.Whether the attribute of an object is purgeable
D.Whether the attribute of an object is unique from other object attributes
E.Whether the attribute of an object is a system attribute that is automatically populated by eDirectory
Correct:B E

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NO.6 Which DNS/DHCP object contains resource record sets for DNS root servers?
A.DNS Zone object
B.DNS Group object
C.DNS Locator object
D.DNS Name Server object
E.RootSrvrInfo Zone object
Correct:E

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NO.7 You have just finished executing a tree merge. Which tasks are left to complete the tree merge
process? (Choose 2.)
A.Correct bindery services commands.
B.Update workstation configurations.
C.Delete and re-create volume objects.
D.Restore the taped backup of the file system.
E.Verify trustee assignments to the file system.
Correct:A B

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NO.8 What does WAN Traffic Manager control? (Choose 2.)
A.Events initiated by administrators or users
B.Server-to-server traffic generated by eDirectory
C.Server-to-server traffic generated by time synchronization
D.The amount of eDirectory traffic based on cost of traffic and time of day
E.Which servers the master replica server synchronizes to by using configured lists
Correct:B D

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NO.9 You have just created an eDirectory tree and installed 3 servers into the tree. The tree has one
partition. Server1, Server2, and Server3 were installed into the Corp container. Server2 crashed
and you removed it from the tree before you installed additional servers. The additional servers
installed in the tree were Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7. Server4 and Server5 were
installed into the Prod container. Server6 and Server7 were installed into the Acct container. The
Corp, Prod, and Acct containers are children of the tree root. The servers were placed in the tree
in the following order: Server4, Server5, Server6, Server7. You haven't had the chance to manually
add replicas to any server. Which servers hold replicas?
A.Server1 and Server3
B.Server1, Server3, and Server4
C.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server6
D.Server1, Server3, Server4, and Server5
E.Server1, Server3, Server6, and Server7
F.Server1, Server3, Server4, Server5, Server6, and Server7
Correct:B

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NO.10 Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?
A.Master
B.Master and filtered
C.Master and read/only
D.Master and read/write
E.Master,read/write, and read-only
F.Master, read/write, and filtered
G.Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference
Correct:E

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NO.11 Which statement is true of queue-based printing?
A.The print server object must be associated with a volume object.
B.The printer object must be associated with a print server object.
C.The print queue object must be associated with a print server object.
D.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container.
E.The print server, print queue, and printer objects must all reside in the same container as the
corresponding server object.
Correct:B

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NO.12 You are the network administrator for your company and are in charge of your company's
eDirectory design and implementation project. You have completed the project approach phase of
the eDirectory design cycle. Which tasks still need to be completed before you begin the
implementation phase? (Choose 2.)
A.Design the eDirectory tree
B.Fine-tune the eDirectory design
C.Determine accessibility needs
D.Plan a time synchronization strategy
E.Gather business information related to network design
Correct:A C

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NO.13 In which eDirectory objects do WAN traffic policies reside? (Choose 2.)
A.The Admin object
B.The Server object
C.The LAN Area object
D.Any container object
E.The partition root object
Correct:B C

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NO.14 You are getting ready to merge 2 eDirectory trees. What should be done before attempting to
merge trees? (Choose 2.)
A.Back up both eDirectory trees.
B.Rename the Admin user object in the target tree.
C.Remove the source server from all replica rings.
D.Use DSREPAIR to update the schema so it is the same on both servers.
E.Rename the first level container objects in both trees to be identical.
Correct:A D

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NO.15 In which file do you configure time on a Linux server?
A.ntp.conf
B.init.conf
C.time.conf
D.tsync.conf
E.clock.conf
Correct:A

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NO.16 Examine the exhibit by clicking the Exhibit button. Shown in the exhibit is a partition and
replica table, and a partitioned eDirectory tree. Which servers automatically receive a subordinate
reference of the PR partition?
A.Serv2, Serv5, and Serv6
B.Serv2, Serv4, and Serv6
C.Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
D.Serv2, Serv3, Serv5, and Serv6
E.Serv2, Serv3, Serv4, Serv5, and Serv6
Correct:C

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NO.17 You are implementing an NDPS printing environment. Where is it recommended to place the
NDPS print manager object in the eDirectory tree?
A.Next to user objects
B.Next to the NDPS printer object
C.In the same container where the server object resides
D.At least one level higher than the printers it manages
E.In the same container as the user object that has administrative rights to manage it
Correct:D

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NO.18 Your company has 15 sites connected by a WAN link to corporate headquarters. Corporate
headquarters has 50 servers and each of the 15 sites has 30 servers. You are implementing a
multiple time provider group time synchronization strategy. Which are considerations you should
make before implementing this strategy? (Choose 2.)
A.If possible, create local time providers.
B.There will be a single point of failure at each location.
C.You cannot exceed 7 primary time servers in your network.
D.Make sure each reference server will synchronize with the same external source.
E.The single reference time synchronization strategy will provide a better strategy for this network
structure.
Correct:A D

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NO.19 A secondary server is not synchronized with a single reference time server. During the next
polling process, what percent of the time difference does the secondary time server adjust?
A.0%
B.16%
C.25%
D.50%
E.75%
F.100%
Correct:F

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NO.20 What does DSMERGE allow you to do?
A.Create replicas
B.Create partitions
C.Rename the eDirectory tree
D.Configure time synchronization
E.Rename objects within the eDirectory tree
Correct:C

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Exam Code: 050-663
Exam Name: Novell (Novell edirectory and active directory)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 136 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-11-01

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NO.1 Which statements are true regarding the process of logging in to Windows 2000
Server? (Choose 2.)
A. The login process cannot be disabled.
B. A password for the Administrator user is required.
C. The Ctrl + Esc keystroke initiates the login process.
D. The Ctrl + Alt + Del keystroke initiates the login process.
E. The login process must be manually enabled when the workstation is connected to a
network.
Answer: A,D

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NO.2 Which groups are created during the installation of Windows 2000 Professional, but
do not contain members until specified? (Choose 2.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Power Users
D. Replicators
E. Administrators
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 What is required before eDirectory can be installed on Windows 2000? (Choose 2.)
A. NTFS
B. ConsoleOne
C. eDirectory manager
D. SLP Directory agent
E. Administrative rights
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 When compared to Windows 2000 Advanced Server, Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server provides which advantages? (Choose 3.)
A. The Process Control tool
B. Support for up to 128 GB RAM
C. 4-node clustering and load balancing services
D. Support for Physical Address Extension (PAE)
E. Support for all Pentium III Coppermine Processors
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Which statement defines the Windows 2000 Advanced Server term "scaling up"?
A. An increase in accessibility of a server via the LAN
B. Increasing the client access license count for a server
C. Distributing the load of network requests through server technology
D. The increased performance and capacity gained by adding processors and memory to
a server
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which 2 advantages are provided by Windows 2000 Advanced Server over
Windows 2000 Server? (Choose 2.)
A. Higher performance server capability
B. Internet Information Server 5.0 included
C. The ability to link servers to handle larger loads
D. Enhanced Microsoft Management Console functions
E. The ability to handle up to 10 processors and up to 8 GB RAM
Answer: A,C

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NO.7 Which groups are created by default when a Windows 2000 server is installed?
(Choose 3.)
A. Users
B. Guests
C. Backup Operators
D. Domain Operators
E. Network Operators
F. Server Administrators
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 What is the maximum RAM capacity of Microsoft Windows 2000 Datacenter
Server?
A. 1 GB
B. 16 GB
C. 32 GB
D. 64 GB
E. 128 GB
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which are features of Windows 2000 Advanced Server? (Choose 2.)
A. It supports up to 4 GB RAM.
B. It supports multiple processors.
C. It provides clustering technologies.
D. It supports Windows 95 device drivers.
E. It supports RAID technology for software virus protection.
Answer: B,C

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NO.10 When would Windows 2000 Server be a good choice over Windows 2000
Professional? (Choose 2.)
A. When a web server is needed
B. When Terminal services are needed
C. When plug-and-play support is needed
D. When local security for files is needed
E. When multiple processors exist in a machine
Answer: A,B

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NO.11 Your network environment includes 1 Windows 2000 server, 5 Windows 2000
workstations, 5 Macintosh computers, and 2 printers. You need to share company
records that are stored on the server. Which file system would you choose during a
Windows 2000 Server installation?
A. HPFS
B. NTFS
C. OS/2
D. FAT-16
E. FAT-32
Answer: B

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NO.12 When a user logs in to Windows 2000 Professional, which component verifies that
the username and password are correct?
A. WinLogon
B. WinVerify
C. Local security database
D. HKEY_CURRENT_USER
E. Security Accounts Manager
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the primary mechanism supporting the Kerberos v5 protocol?
A. Key Generation Center
B. Key Distribution Center
C. Ticket Granting Service
D. Key Distribution Control
E. Mutual Authentication Center
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which objects displayed in ConsoleOne can be modified and allow you to add
eDirectory users to an Active Directory group? (Choose 2.)
A. Group
B. Server
C. Organization
D. eDirectory User
E. Organizational Unit
Answer: A,D

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NO.15 Which statements about Windows 2000 native mode are true? (Choose 2.)
A. Native mode allows backward compatibility.
B. After you make the switch to native mode, it cannot be undone.
C. After you make the switch to native mode, you can switch back to mixed mode at any
time.
D. You can switch to native mode if there are Windows NT domain controllers within the
domain.
E. Native mode allows you to take advantage of all features and capabilities of Active
Directory.
Answer: B,E

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Exam Name: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Technical Sales Skills -v2)
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Total Q&A: 74 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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POWER7+720. The customer has TS2900 SCSI-attached tape drive and 20 70GB disk units.
Which elements of the original system can be used in the new system?
A. The TS2900 can be converted to SAS connectivity.
B. The memory DIMMS, if larger than 4GB, can be directly installed.
C. The EC #0595 expansion unit can be converted from HSL-2 to 12X.
D. The 70GB drive data can be migrated using Pack Utilities Maintenance Program in SST.
Answer: A

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What is the minimum host configuration to support the client storage?
A. 2 vSCSIcontrollers 2 Network Server Descriptions
B. 1 vSCSIcontroller 1 Network Server Description
C. 3 vSCSIcontrollers 3 Network Server Descriptions
D. 4 vSCSI controllers 2 Network Server Descriptions
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer would like to share a tape library among multiple partitions to run backups on a
nightly basis, but doesn't have the budget for a fibre switch or dedicated fibre adapters. They need
to be able to have their single fibre adapter available to each partition on a scheduled basis.
What product or feature can help accommodate this requirement?
A. iASP
B. BRMS
C. Media and Storage Extensions
D. Hardware Management Console
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has a large quantity of LTO-2 media.
The customer would like to be able to read that media, while at the same time acquiring a tape
library which supports hardware encryption.
Which LTO format and attachment method supports these requirements?
A. SAS-attached LTO-5
B. USB-attached LTO-6
C. SCSI-attached LTO-3
D. Fibre-attached LTO-4
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer with a POWERS 520 running IBM i is debating consolidating to a POWER7+770
that is currently only running AIX, or replacing the POWERS with a POWER7+720. The budget is
limited, and the customer SWMA contract is expired.
Which option is the most economical?
A. Transfer the IBM i license to the POWER7+770
B. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and a new IBM i license
C. Purchase a new IBM i license for the POWER7+ 770
D. Purchase a POWER7+ 720 and transfer the IBM i license
Answer: B

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