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Exam Code: C2050-240
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Sterling Configurator V9.1, Deployment)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A modeler needs to create a property to represent the quantity of televisions in a home where the value
needs to be used in a calculation. What type of property should be created?
A. List property
B. String property
C. Integer property
D. Number property
Answer: D

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NO.2 To represent an entertainment collection, a modeler creates a Model Group with Models for books,
songs, movies. etc. Option Classes in each Model represent different genres and the Option Items are the
individual works of art (specific songs, movies, books, etc.). Given that the term "'artists" is applicable to
songs and movies but not to books, where should a property denoting "artists" be defined and attached?
A. Property is defined at the Model Group and attached at the Models.
B. Property is defined at the Models and attached at the Option Class.
C. Property is defined at the Model Group and attached at the Option Items.
D. Property is defined at the Option Class and attached at the Option Items.
Answer: C

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NO.3 A furniture company has a Model for a house with an option to select different types of furniture
commonly found in a house (e.g. tables, chairs etc). Each of those furniture types are modeled as Option
Classes and the available options are defined as Option Items. The prices are defined as a property on
Option Items. Multiple selections can be made in each of the furniture types and quantities can be entered
for them. Which function(s) will be needed in a rule attached at the Option Class level to determine the
average price of each of the furniture type selected?
A. sum()
B. childSum()
C. sum(), count()
D. childSum(), count()
Answer: B

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NO.4 A major bike manufacturer sells customizable bikes online, and includes assembly and shipping. For a
bike to be completed, the user must select a frame, tires and gear systems. There are several choices
available for the user in each category, but there are some compatibility issues between certain types of
frames and the third-party gear systems that the manufacturer uses. For example, there are three sizes
the bike frames: 19" 20" and 22". There are three models of gear systems that the manufacturer offers:
6.speed, 18-speed and 24-speed. While 6-speed and 18speed fits all the frame sizes, 24-speed is a
premium exclusive model and fits only the 22". The requirement calls for compatibility to be pointed out to
the user. What is the correct way to model this product?
A. Use a rule to automatically fix compatibility issues.
B. Use a Constraint Table to manage the allowable configurations.
C. Use a list to list down the different options available for each frame.
D. Define different properties for gear system 24-speed to distinguish it from 6-speed and 18speed.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Review the following Model:
The callouts (i.e. "R1", "R2", "R3, R4" and "R5") denote the rules assigned at the different levels. For the
rules assigned to the same node, assume that the rules are listed in the increasing order of priority value.
What is the sequence in which the rules will be evaluated?
A. R1, R2, R3, R4, R5
B. R1, R2, R4, R3, R5
C. R1, R2, R5, R4, R3
D. R3, R4, R2, R5, R1
Answer: D

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NO.6 A modeler is about to create an Option Class for logos for a Model of t-shirts. The modeler discovers
that there is a Model for logos and that it has been used as a sub-model in a Model for bags. Instead of
attaching the Model for logos as a sub-model to the Option Class, the modeler wants to copy the
reference for the sub-model from the Model for bags. What are the possible advantages of doing this?
A. Any properties attached to the sub-model reference are copied over and may be useful.
B. Any rules and properties attached to the sub-model reference are copied over and may be useful.
C. There is no advantage. It is same as attaching the Model for logos as a sub-model to the Option Class.
D. It is not possible to copy the sub-model reference.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A Model has property values that change frequently, and these changes are communicated by an
external vendor. The modeler needs to make these changes as required. What is the MOST efficient way
of updating the Model with these frequent changes?
A. Make the changes in the database table.
B. Make the changes using the Visual Modeler.
C. Export the current Model and make changes in the Model XML. Import the changed Model.
D. Create a common Worksheet and maintain it externally in a Comma Separated Value (CSV) file.
Upload it with the new property values.
Answer: D

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NO.8 A Model is developed per the following image:
To ensure consistency and control of priorities, which of the following statements is TRUE?
A. "Property, D" will always be equal to 5.
B. The formula cannot be attached to property as depicted in the image.
C. To ensure that the value of "Property, D" is 7 after Model execution, change the priority of formula firing
so that the formula for deriving "Property, C" is fired before the formula for "Property, D".
D. To ensure that the value of "Property, C" is calculated before the value of "Property, D", replace the
formula with two rules. Rule1 calculates "Property, C" and Rule2 calculates "Property, D". Set the priority
for Rule1 is set to 40, and the priority of Rule2 to 50.
Answer: D

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NO.9 A car manufacturer wants to display a list of available cars based on what the customer chooses for the:
What should be the rule fragment/condition written for this?
A. value(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
B. value(AvailableCars) not in propval(CarType) [Fragment is false]
C. propval(AvailableCars) not in list(CarType) [Fragment is false]
D. propval(AvailableCars) not in parent(CarType) [Fragment is false]
Answer: C

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NO.10 When naming properties, a modeler avoids using names that start with an "_" (underscore). The
modeler is correct to do this, because names that start with an "_" (underscore) are which type of
properties?
A. UI Properties
B. UEV Properties
C. System Properties
D. Rule Trace Properties
Answer: C

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NO.11 A modeler wants to give a discount on the price of cars, but only if the following conditions are
satisfied:
The modeler creates a rule for this and it is set to trigger on success. How will this rule condition be
defined in the Visual Modeler?
B
A. Exhibit A
B. Exhibit B
C. Exhibit C
D. Exhibit D
Answer: C

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NO.12 A modeler creates a Model for a desktop with multiple layers of Option Classes. To keep the price of the
desktop low, the modeler decided on a maximum price for each group of components and marked it at the
appropriate Option Class level with the property "maxPrice". The rules for validating that the price does
not go beyond the max set for that component or subcomponent is defined at Model and attached at the
Option Items. What function can be used in the rule to determine the "maxPrice" for each component?
A. max()
B. value()
C. parent()
D. propval()
Answer: C

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NO.13 A modeler has to create a rule with many fragments. In which order should the fragments be set up for
better performance?
A. The nested fragments should come first.
B. The least probable fragment should come first.
C. The sequence of the fragments do not make any difference.
D. The fragments that use custom function handlers should come first.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A company wants to give its customers a 10% volume discount for its Professional Services if the order
totals 100 or more hours. The $250 hourly (undiscounted) base rate for Professional Services is retained
in an Option Item under an Option Class called base rates in the model and is never displayed in the UI.
Rules will be used to set the UI: PRICE for the Professional Services Option Item displayed in the UI
based on the quantity of hours ordered and the UI: PRICE of the hidden base rate Option Item.
Review the following images which show what is presented to the user in the UI with and without a
discount.
When creating these assignment rules, which function needs to be used to retrieve the hourly base rate
for Professional Services?
A. sum
B. value
C. lookup
D. propval
Answer: D

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NO.15 A modeler is working on a rule to determine if the customer's location is one of the 10 possible locations
where a discounted offer can be given. What type of property SHOULD be used for storing all 10 of the
locations in one property.?
A. List property
B. String property
C. Location property
D. String Array property
Answer: A

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Exam Code: M2070-640
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Enterprise Content Management Sales Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 48 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 The Information Governance Reference Model provides a responsible model for
stakeholders for
efficient information governance and management.
Which of the stated Information Governance steps are MOST important?
A. Hold, Discover
B. Retain, Archive, Dispose
C. Store, Secure
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.2 What is the best description for defensible disposal?
A. IT is able to track disposed information
B. Legal has visibility into what information IT has disposed of
C. IT can dispose of information in compliance with preservation and retention policy
D. RIM disposes of paper records held in storage for more than 10 years
Answer: C

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NO.3 How does Production Imaging Edition (PIE) compare against competing solutions from
Kofax,
Documentum, Open Text, etc?
A. PIE is the only complete solution, comprising capture, content management, workflow, and
viewing /
annotation / redaction
B. PIE is the only solution sold as one part number
C. PIE is the only solution that can be extended to Case Management, Lifecycle Governance,
Content
Analytics, and more
D. All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.4 Pre-configured Datacap Capture solutions are available for the following applications:
A. Import/export and accounts payable
B. Medical claims and student survey processing
C. Accounts payable and medical claims
D. Accounts payable and human resources
Answer: C

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NO.5 Solutions that enable precise holds and IT transparency, targeted collection, and
internal culling, review
and assessment, can reduce costs by the following ways EXCEPT:
A. Avoiding unnecessary data accumulation and collection with confidence
B. Improving case strategy, reduce collected volume and enterprise burden
C. Facilitating production and presentation of evidence to courts
D. Reducing high processing and outside review costs
Answer: C

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Exam Code: P2180-023
Exam Name: IBM (IBM PureApplication System Technical Sales Mastery Test v1 )
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Total Q&A: 53 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 A customer has created a virtual application that he wants to customize for two different
scenarios: 1.Development - where the workload demands are known to be low and predictable
2.Production where workload demands are erratic and in which case they want to incorporate a
scaling policy to dynamically scale VMs based on workload demand How can he best leverage IBM
PureApplication System to accomplish this task?
A. Create two different patterns, one for the development scenario and one for the production one
B. Create a development and a production environment profile for deployment of the virtual
application
C. Define two distinct layers in the virtual application pattern and assign the components and
policies accordingly
D. Create the virtual application as a reusable component that he can then augment for the
production scenario
Answer: C

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NO.2 What are available administration interfaces to IBM PureApplication System? (Choose three.)
A. Web Console
B. Command line tool
C. Representational state transfer (REST) APIs
D. Eclipse based plug-in
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 When creating a script package archive which file is used to define all the configuration
parameters that can be specified as part of the deployment process?
A. cbscript.json
B. config.sh
C. virtualimage.properties
D. appmodel.json
Answer: A

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NO.4 The IBM CE is only person allowed to perform certain system level operations on IBM
PureApplication System. Name some of those operations. (Choose two.)
A. The IBM CE uses a special user id named "ibmce" which is hidden from the user console
B. The IBM CE needs to request a special password tied to the system from IBM Support
C. The Client Hardware Administrator will need to enable login for the IBM CE
D. The IBM CE has full administrative permissions to the system
Answer: B,C

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NO.5 An administrator on IBM PureApplication System wants to delegate his current role for catalog
content, virtual instances, and pattern types to another user. Which of the following settings would
the administrator grant?
A. Cloud administration
B. Workload resource administration
C. Hardware administration
D. Security administration
Answer: B

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NO.6 The Publish function in Rational Application Developer (RAD), when used in conjunction with
IBM PureApplication System, does one of the following:
A. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and completes any linkages
between components
B. Creates a new Virtual Application pattern and populates it with the application from RAD
C. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern and starts a new instance of the
pattern
D. Adds the application to an existing Virtual Application pattern
Answer: D

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NO.7 Figure 1 illustrates a typical ordering of parts startup within the Virtual Systems pattern editor.
What can you deduce from it? (Choose three.)
A. There are two default constraints that cannot be modified or deleted
B. The IBM HTTP server and the custom nodes can start in any order
C. The Deployment Manager and DB2 parts are involved in a default constraint
D. The DB2 part has to start first
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.8 Add-ons are specialized scripts that customize virtual machine configurations providing fine
tuning for hardware and operating system configurations. Although add-ons have been
implemented modeling script packages, there are subtle differences between them. Which of the
following is NOT true?
A. You can not specify the order of execution of add-ons in the pattern editor
B. Add-ons always run at system creation time, never user-initiated or at deletion time
C. Add-ons always run before any user supplied script packages
D. Add-ons are pre-defined in IBM PureApplication System. You cannot supply your own
Answer: D

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Exam Code: M2050-242
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Sales Mastery Test v1)
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Total Q&A: 35 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 What is the most common ERP/Order Management platform that IBM TMS
(Transportation
Management System) platform interfaces with.?
A. Manhattan
B. AS400
C. SAP
D. Oracle
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT one of the four core functional quadrants of the TMS
(Transportation
Management System) solution?
A. Optimizer
B. Execution
C. Contract Management
D. Freight Payment
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following processes CANNOT be performed by a partner?
A. Carrier On-Boarding
B. EDI Map Testing and Certification
C. Level One Support
D. New Organization Creation
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is NOT a capability of the IBM WMS (Warehouse Management
System)
Productivity Manager?
A. Automatic recording of productivity based on tasks performed.
B. Manual recording of productivity for tasks executed outside.
C. Pick-Pack Capabilities
D. Dynamic computation of SAM (Standard Allowable Minutes) based on historical task
information.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following documents CANNOT be generated in the IBM TMS
(Transportation Management
System)?
A. Shipment Manifest
B. Export Declaration
C. Master Bill of Lading
D. Custom LTL Manifest
Answer: A

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Exam Code: C2150-195
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 104 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which event search group contains default PCI searches?
A. Compliance
B. System Monitoring
C. Network Monitoring and Management
D. Authentication, Identity, and User Activity
Answer: A

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NO.2 If a report author shares a report with another IBM Security QRadar V7 0 MR4 user, what type
of report access is granted to the other user.?
A. The other user can only access the report if they are an administrator.
B. The other user can use the original report as if it were created by that person.
C. The report output will be defined by the intersection of networkobjects and log sources of alluser
with
whom the report is shared.
D. The other user will not have any access to the original report definition but can do as they please
with
the report definition of the shared copy.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How does a user search for events by high/low level category?
A. Actions menu > add a filter
B. Display drop-down > select categories
C. Add Filter icon > Category drop-down
D. View drop-down > select By Category drop-down
Answer: C

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NO.4 How many default dashboards are included in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.5 Offenses can be exported to which two file formats? (Choose two.)
A. RTF
B. XML
C. PDF
D. CSV
E. HTML
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which flow source is most often sampled?
A. vFlow
B. sFlow
C. QFlow
D. netflow
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the rule for using the Quick Filter to group terms using logical expressions such as AND,
OR, and NOT?
A. The syntax is not case sensitive.
B. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be upper case to be recognized as logical
expressions and not as search terms.
C. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be placed between square brackets to be
recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
D. The syntax is case sensitive and the operators must be lower case and placed between square
brackets to be recognized as logical expressions and not as search terms.
Answer: B

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NO.8 What does it mean if events are coming in as stored?
A. The events are not mapped to an existing QID map.
B. The events are being captured and parsed by a DSM.
C. The events are being captured but not being parsed by a DSM.
D. The events are being stored on disk and will be parsed by a DSM later.
Answer: C

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NO.9 How can a report be set up with restricted user access?
A. Click Reports > Restrict Users
B. Click on Manage Groups and add the user to the Restricted Reports group
C. Select the appropriate users on the Report Editing wizard to access the reports
D. Click Admin > Users, edit each user, and create lists of report filters users are allowed to see
Answer: C

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NO.10 If the IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 operator wants to graph the flow data in the Network
Activity tab,which three chart types can be presented? (Choose three.)
A. Pie Chart
B. Bar Chart
C. Line Chart
D. Area Chart
E. Gant Chart
F. Time Series Chart
Answer: A,B,F

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NO.11 What is a QID identifier?
A. A mapping of a single device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
B. A mapping of a single event of an external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
C. A mapping of multiple events of a single external device to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
D. A mapping of a single event to multiple external devices to a Q1 Labs unique identifier.
Answer: B

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NO.12 On the Offense summary page, which filter is executed when the Events icon or the link with
the
number of events is clicked?
A. An event filter with all events matching the source IP address
B. An event filter with all events matching the destination IP address
C. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the last 24 hours
D. An event filter with the Custom Rule Engine rule(s) for the duration of the offense
Answer: D

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NO.13 Using Quick Filter, what is a correct search term to find Blocked related activities in the
payload?
A. Blocked
B. "payload includes Blocked"
C. payload includes "Blocked"
D. (payload includes) Blocked
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which steps are required to see hidden offenses in IBM Security QRadar V7.0 MR4 (QRadar)?
A. Contact the QRadar administrator to select Hidden Offenses and then choose the Show option
from
the Action menu.
B. From the Offenses page, navigate to All Offenses and open the Search menu. Select Edit Search
and
in the Search Parameters section, uncheckthe box Exclude Hidden Offenses.
C. From the Offenses page, navigate to the Offenses by Category, and click on Show Inactive
Categories
to display all hidden offenses. Click Hide Inactive Categories to hide them again.
D. Hidden Offenses are no longer associated with Offenses so a custom report and a search should
be
created that uses a search parameter where Associated with Offense equals False. To create a
custom
report, navigate to Reports and from the Actions menu select Create.
Answer: B

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NO.15 What is a prerequisite to create a report that contains at least one bar chart?
A. Have a color display and enable the JPanel
B. Have the role assigned to create (graphical) reports
C. Choose a search that has accumulated properties for the report
D. The search contained in the report must aggregate the results at least along one property
Answer: D

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Exam Code: P2180-031
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Worklight Mobile Foundation Technical Sales Mastery v1 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 How can SQL statements can be invoked?
A.Only by using SQL statement query
B.Only by using SQL stored procedure
C.Only by having a separate file with SQL queries
D.Both by using SQL statement query and SQL stored procedures
Answer: D

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NO.2 Assuming it is not overridden manually, in which case will the isSuccessful property of the
procedure invocation result be true?
A.Worklight server is not accessible
B.Back end that adapter tries to connect to is not accessible
C.Internet is not available on a mobile device
D.Specified procedure does not exist in adapter
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is messages.js file used for?
A.This file contains the texts of application pop-up prompts
B.This file contains the texts of error messages that application may show
C.This is an internal framework file.It is used to store system messages for debugging purposes
D.This file contains strings that can be used for application elements
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following is not a client side push API?
A.WL.Client.Push.isPushSupported()
B.WL.Client.Push.isSubscribed()
C.WL.Client.Push.unsubscribe()
D.WL.Client.Push.poll()
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of these adapter properties is mandatory?
A.adapter name
B.display name
C.description
D.ip address
Answer: A

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NO.6 A Worklight adapter is used to __________.
A.adapt the application to various environments (iOS, Android etc)
B.connect to various back-end systems
C.make sure that client application works directly with a corporate back-end system
D.make sure that client application is not running on a JailBroken/Rooted device
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which authenticators are supported out of the box? (Choose three)
A.Header authentication
B.Persistent cookie authentication
C.Form-based authentication
D.Kerberos authentication
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.8 Which OS uses an HTML generated tab-bar?
A.iOS
B.Android
C.Blackberry
D.Windows Phone
Answer: B

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NO.9 When should the Shell development approach be considered?
A.There are only two developers
B.The company wants to create a number of mobile applications sharing a common native code
base and authentication mechanism
C.The company wants to create a native iOS and Android application, but its resources are
limited
D.The company has distributed development teams situated on different continents that must
share the source code
Answer: B

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NO.10 Once a Shell developer completes developing her Shell components, what is the proper way to
distribute it to inner application developers?
A.Zipping the Worklight project and emailing it to inner application developers
B.Committing the Worklight project to a Source Control Management system and telling inner
application developers to use source code from it
C.The Shell developer should not distribute the Shell component to inner application developers.
They should send their inner applications to her in order to build them
D.Sending the .wlshell Shell bundle file to inner application developers
Answer: D

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Exam Code: C2040-928
Exam Name: IBM (Developing Websites Using IBM Web Content Manager 8.0 )
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Jennifer is a developer creating a new authoring template to allow content creators to create
job postings. One of the fields that needs to show on the authoring template is Salary.
Which of the following element types is appropriate for this type of information?
A. Text
B. Decimal
C. Number
D. Currency
Answer: C

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NO.2 The following statements about mapping site areas, authoring templates and presentation
templates are all true, except:
A. Template maps assigned in site areas will override those set in authoring templates.
B. Two items using different authoring templates can be displayed using the same presentation
template
if both authoring templates are mappedto the same presentation template.
C. The presentation template used by each item will be determined by the authoring template the
item
used, and the location of the item in the siteframework.
D. A content item can be displayed using two different presentation templates. The web content
library is
configured to allow this.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Tom wants to write out a fully qualified URL to a content item being viewed through a portal.
Which one of the following tags allows him to retrieve the protocol, host name, and port
information for the URL?
A. [pathcmpnt tag="base"/]
B. [pathcmpnt tag="noprefixbase"/]
C. [path tag="base"/]
D. [path tag="noprefixbase"/]
Answer: B

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NO.4 Kellan wants to create a Breadcrumbs Navigator. To what should he set the start type?
A. Selected
B. Current Site Area
C. Current Top Level Site Area
D. Current Content
Answer: B

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NO.5 A content administrator would like to customize the initial interface of the Authoring Portlet
so that content authors are presented with just two simplified options (create a news article and
view content drafts).
Which one of the following options best describes how the content administrator can achieve this?
A. Go into the authoring portlet configuration mode, expand the user interface section, and
configure the required settings.
B. Create a custom launch page that uses remote action URLs.
C. Go into the authoring portlet, edit shared settings mode, expand the user interface section, and
configure the required settings.
D. Customize the initial interface by modifying the portlet's default.jsp file.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Tony has created the following categories within IBM Web Content Manager: Article >
Practice
Management > Tech Article > Practice Management > Finance He now wants to create a menu that
returns results for all content items that use the News authoring template and all Categories under
Article > Practice Management.
Which of the following examples would allow him to accomplish this task?
A. 1. In Menu Criteria, Tony selects the Authoring Templates and Categories check boxes.
2. In the Authoring Templates section, Tony clicks the Add Authoring Template button and selects
the
News authoring template.
3. In the Categories section, Tony clicks the Include ancestors check box and then clicks the Add
Categories section and selects Article >Practice Management.
B. 1. In Menu Criteria, Tony selects the Authoring Templates and Categories check boxes.
2. In the Authoring Templates section, Tony clicks the Add Authoring Template button and selects
the
News authoring template.
3. In the Categories section, Tony clicks the Include descendents check box and then clicks the Add
Categories section and selects Article >Practice Management.
C. 1. In Menu Criteria, Tony selects the Authoring Templates and Categories check boxes.
2. In the Authoring Templates section, Tony clicks the Add Authoring Template button and selects
the
News authoring template.
3. In the Categories section, Tony clicks the Include ancestors check box and then clicks the Add
Categories section and selects Article >Practice Management > Tech and Article > Practice
Management > Finance.
D. 1. In Menu Criteria, Tony selects the Authoring Templates and Categories check boxes.
2. In the Authoring Templates section, Tony clicks the Add Authoring Template button and selects
the News authoring template.
3. In the "Categories" section, Tony clicks the Results must match all categories check box and then
clicks
the Add Categories section andselects Article > Practice Management > Tech and Article > Practice
Management > Finance.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A content item named "News List" has been created in the "News" Site Area, which also
contains other news related content items. The "News List" content item uses a menu component
named "News Menu" to display a listing of content items in the "News" Site Area. Since the "New
List" content item also exists within this site, how can the content author prevent the "News List"
content item from being displayed in the menu list?
A. Leave the "current content" field in the menu design properties section of the menu component
empty
so no output will be rendered.
B. Enable the "Exclude current content from results" option in the menu component.
C. Adjust the sort order to "ascending by type" and choose to render the menu list at the second
content
item.
D. Adjust the sort order to "descending by type" and choose to render the menu list at the second
content
item.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Adam works as the IBM Web Content Manager administrator within the Finance department.
One of
the authoring templates within his library is called Results. Within this authoring template, his
content
authors enter how many products, such as teddy bears, have been purchased. Currently all fields
within
this authoring template have been created as text fields.
How can Adam ensure that his content authors enter whole numbers?
A. Adam must change the fields within the Results authoring template from Text to Number.
B. Adam must change the fields within the Results authoring template from Text to Currency.
C. Adam must change the fields within the Results authoring template from Text to Currency. Within
the
field properties, he should set theminimum and maximum values.
D. Adam must change the fields within the Results authoring template from Text to Numbers.
Within the
field properties, he should select theWhole Numbers Only radio button.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Sadie has created a menu that typically returns 50-100 content items. She does not want to
show the entire list at one time; instead she wants to show 10 items at a time with the ability to
page-through the matches in groups of 10.
How can Sadie accomplish this task?
A. Create a Page Navigation component and embed the component in the menu's footer using a
[PageInfo] tag.
B. Create a Page Navigation component and embed the component in the menu's footer using a
[Component] tag.
C. Create a Page Navigation component and embed the component in the presentation template
that renders the menu using a [Component] tag.
D. Check the Show items in Pages option in the menu. Select the appropriate number of items to be
shown per page.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Wesley is a content developer, and Lauren is a content creator. Lauren is entering products
into the IBM Web Content Manager website. One requirement for the site is that each product
content item can optionally have a product picture. What can Wesley and Lauren do to facilitate this
requirement?
A. Lauren adds an image field to each content item and uploads the appropriate product image to
each content item. Wesley references theImage component in the presentation template.
B. Lauren creates an Image component in the Component library for each product image. Wesley
references the library components in thepresentation template.
C. Wesley adds an Image component to the product's site area. Lauren adds each product image to
the site area as new content items arecreated. Wesley references the site area images in the
presentation template.
D. Wesley adds an Image element to the authoring template. Lauren adds an image to each content
item using the Image element. Wesleyreferences the Image element in the presentation template.
Answer: D

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NO.11 The AT Printer Corp is a manufacturer of computer printers. They are building a new website
using IBM Web Content Manager. The site contains pages that describes each of their product lines.
When content creators are creating a product content item, they are required to include one of five
preformatted company slogans as a part of the content.
Which of the following actions can Jim, a developer, do to facilitate this requirement easily?
A. Jim creates an authoring template and adds all five slogans as HTML components to the
authoring
template. The HTML components are thenreferenced in an Option Selection element on the
authoring
template.
B. Jim first creates an Option Selection component in the Component library with all five slogans.
Jim then
adds this Option Selection componentto the authoring template using Manage Elements.
C. Jim gives content creators the Contributor role on the authoring template. Content Creators can
then
use Manage Elements to add a new fieldto each content item for the slogan.
D. Jim first creates five HTML components in the Component library; one for each slogan. Jim can
add a
Component Reference element to theauthoring template.
Answer: D

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NO.12 An Authoring Tool component can be added to any of the technical assets listed, except for
which option?
A. Menu component
B. Presentation template
C. Navigator component
D. Authoring template
Answer: D

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NO.13 Abi is a developer. The HR department wants to create job postings that are made available on
both the company intranet and public websites. Because the two sites look different, the postings
need to have different visual representations on the each of the sites.
Which one of the following statements allows her to accomplish this task?
A. Create different sets of presentation templates and authoring templates for each site area.
B. Create different presentation templates and configure each site area to use the appropriate
presentation template.
C. Create different authoring templates and configure each site area to use the appropriate
authoring
template.
D. Create different HTML components and configure each site area to use the appropriate HTML
components.
Answer: B

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NO.14 Priscilla has been tasked to configure an authoring environment. One requirement is to
automatically append a wildcard character to the end of search terms when entered in the basic
search field. How does she configure this action?
A. Within the IBM WebSphere Portal administration console, Priscilla must edit the IBM Web
Content Manager WCMConfigService service andmodify the value of
wcm.authoringui.simplesearch.addstar to true.
B. Within the WebSphere Portal administration console, Priscilla must edit the Web Content
Manager WCMConfigService service and modify thevalue of
wcm.authoringui.simplesearch.appendstar to true.
C. Within the IBM WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, Priscilla must edit the Web Content
Manager WCMConfigService service and modifythe value of wcm.authoringui.simplesearch.addstar
to true.
D. Within the WebSphere Integrated Solutions console, Priscilla must edit the Web Content
Manager WCMConfigService service and modify thevalue of
wcm.authoringui.simplesearch.appendstar to true.
Answer: C

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NO.15 For draft items, each of the characteristics are true, except which one?
A. Cancelling a draft is essentially the same as deleting a draft because all the changes made to the
item
are discarded.
B. For draft items in a project that are ready to be published, the draft remains in a pending state
until all
items in the project are ready to bepublished.
C. Draft items are only displayed in the Authoring portlet and are not rendered within the published
website.
D. Even if a published item has more than one draft, the Manage Drafts button is displayed only on
the
published version of the item.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: A2090-463
Exam Name: IBM (Assessment: IBM InfoSphere Guardium)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 130 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which mechanism is used to intercept DB2 and Informix shared memory traffic on all UNIX
platforms except Linux?
A. TEE
B. PCAP
C. A-TAP
D. K-TAP
Answer: D

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NO.2 When configuring S-TAP on Solaris Zones or AIX WPARs, what is the correct way to configure
the
connect_to_ip parameter in the Inspection Engines?
A. connect_to_ip = 127.0.0.1
B. connect_to_ip = 1.1.1.1 / 0.0.0.0
C. connect_to_ip = <IP address of local zone>
D. connect_to_ip = <IP address of global zone>
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the purpose of K-TAP flex load in Linux installations?
A. Allows upgrade of the K-TAP module without requiring a reboot of the host operating system.
B. Give the system administrator the ability to stop traffic interception by manually unloading the
K-TAP module.
C. Allows installation of K-TAP module with closest match in cases where an exact kernel match is
not available.
D. Allows the system administrator to upgrade the K-TAP module directly from GIM interface on
Central Manager.
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is a disadvantage of using S-TAP terminate action in the policy (and related functionality)
over S-GATE terminate?
A. There is a need to install the S-TAP agent on the database server and as a result it's harder to
deploy.
B. Additionally licensed feature needs to be installed and as a result there is additional cost
associated with this functionality.
C. The decision to terminate is done by S-TAP and as a result it has significant negative impact on
database server performance.
D. The violation activity will start bringing results from the database before the connection is
terminated and as a result data leakage is possible.
Answer: D

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NO.5 The policy has an extrusion rule with action of 'Log Extrusion Counter' when a credit card
number
is returned by the query. The inspection engine is configured with:
Query 'select credit_card from TABLE1 where customer_id in (1,2,3);' returns a total of 120
records with 10 credit cards returned in each network packet. What is expected result for
SUM(Returned Data Count) from Full SQL domain for this query?
A. 0
B. 12
C. 74
D. 120
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which method stops a non-GIM installed Windows S-TAP?
A. Invoking the "stop winstap" command.
B. Stopping the GUARDIUM_STAP service.
C. Ending Guardium S-TAP process through Task Manager.
D. Removing S-TAP from startup programs and rebooting server.
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which ports are used by UNIX S-TAP?
A. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 TCP (encrypted)
B. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 TCP (encrypted)
C. 9500 TCP (unencrypted) and 8075 UDP (heartbeat signal)
D. 16016 TCP (unencrypted) and 16018 UDP (hearbeat signal)
Answer: B

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NO.8 How does Application End User Translation determine the correct application user?
A. Uses Client MAC Address to determine Client IP .
B. Imports LDAP and matches Client IP address with Application User name.
C. Guesses the correct application user by comparing session time to / from the database server.
D. Integrates with Enterprise Business Application to deterministically capture application user
name.
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which storage type requires a dsm.sys file to be uploaded to the Guardium appliance?
A. SCP
B. TSM
C. SFTP
D. CENTERA
Answer: B

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NO.10 With Guardium version 8.x "S-TAP for z" monitoring a single DB2 instance on z/OS, which
statement is true?
A. There is typically 1 started task running on z:
ADHSPAGT = Agent
B. There are typically 2 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHSPSRV = Server
C. There are typically 3 started tasks running on z:
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
D. There are typically 4 started tasks running on z:
ADHCXXXX = Collector
ADHMXXXX = Master
ADHSPAGT = Agent
ADHSPSRV = Server
Answer: D

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Exam Code: M2150-662
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Security Systems Sales Mastery Test v2)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 65 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2014-02-24

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NO.1 Which of the following is a key benefit & feature of data protection add-on?
A. Out-of-the-box compliance templates to detect credit card numbers, social security numbers,
among other sensitive data.
B. Continuous compliance to detect loss of credit card numbers, social security numbers, among
other sensitive data.
C. Patch Management to reduce the risk of data loss due to open vulnerabilities.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
* IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on The optional IBM Endpoint
Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on can be deployed and managed through the
IBM Tivoli Endpoint Manager infrastructure. The module also helps improve data protection
capabilities while helping to control operational costs. IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection
Data Protection Add-on offers a robust data loss prevention and device control solution that
integrates into the anti-virus and anti-malware capabilities provided by the Core Protection solution
and can:
/ Secure data (sensitive or not) on devices that leave the business premises / Enforce security
policies such that users can access sensitive data for their jobs, but not misuse or lose that data /
Comply with the growing number of data privacy laws that affect the industry or company
Reference: IBM Endpoint Manager for Core Protection Data Protection Add-on
6. Once IBM Security Virtual Server Protection (VSP) for VMware is deployed, is there still need
for other security solutions in the virtualized servers?
A. Yes there is because VSP cannot monitor host-based events (e.g. file integrity).
B. Yes there is because VSP does not monitor all traffic in the hypervisor.
C. No there is not because VSP does monitor all traffic in the hypervisor.
D. No there is not because VSP offers several layers of security.
Answer: D

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NO.2 With Tivoli Federated Identity Manager, which of the following customer scenarios is to be
addressed?
A. The provisioning of identities to more than one domain or company.
B. Strict management of privileged users' identities to absolutely ensure there is no unauthorized
sharing of their identities.
C. Cross-domain single sign-on, whether the requester is an external user or an internal employee.
D. Strong authentication requirements for any configuration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business Key features include: Provide a base for the federation of
user identities. For standardized cross-domain authentication (federation), Tivoli Access Manager
for e-business customers can upgrade to Tivoli Federated Identity Manager - a modular access
control solution for cross-domain single sign-on.
Reference: IBM Tivoli Identity and Access Manager V1.0 and IBM Tivoli Unified Single Sign-On V1.0

NO.3 You are in a competitive user management/identity management/ user provisioning sale, and
the decision seems to hinge on who has the superior role management capabilities. How do you
handle this?
A. Expand the discussion to include access management and pull TAMeb into the sale.
B. Expand the discussion to include enterprise audit management and compliance and pull TSIEM
into the sale.
C. Bring Tivoli Provisioning Role Manager into the picture.
D. Tout TIM's significant role management capabilities and emphasize the fact that TIM comes with
Role and Policy Modeling in the package, whereas competitors charge extra for it.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Note:
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 helps you simplify and reduce cost of
administration:
/ Role modeling and mining helps facilitate the quick building of an effective role
and access structure from a business centric approach.
*Tivoli Identity Manager also provides:
A dynamic policy management engine that automates user provisioning and aids
in compliance efforts.
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 is an automated and policy-based solution
that manages user access across IT environments.
*IBM Tivoli Identity Manager, also known as TIM, is an Identity Management System product from
IBM.
TIM provides centralized identity lifecycle management. It can automatically create, manage, and
delete user access to various system resources such as files, servers, applications, and more
based on job roles or requests.

NO.4 Which of the following actions can be taken with Tivoli Endpoint Manager for Mobile Device
Manager?
A. Power Management.
B. Patch distribution.
C. Disable iCloud sync.
D. All of the above.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
Endpoint Manager for Mobile Devices *Enable PW Policies *Enable Device Encryption *Force
encrypted backup *(C) Disable Sync *Corporate Access, email access, and App access contingent on
Policy Compliance! *Wipe if lost / stolen
* Wipe corporate data if employee leaves company (selective wipe)

NO.5 Which of the following best describes QRadar Network Anomaly Detection (QNAD)?
A. QNAD is a stand-alone appliance that allows the identification of anomalies on the network.
B. QNAD feeds information about the network traffic to Site Protector.
C. QNAD is an optimized version of QRadar which complements SiteProtector to optimize network
protection.
D. QNAD identifies anomalies out of the information it imports from SiteProtector.
Answer: C

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Reference: PCTY 2012, Threat landscape and Security Intelligence v. Michael Andersson
URL:
http://www.slideshare.net/IBMDK/pcty-2012-threat-landscape-and-security-intelligence-vmichael-a
ndersson (slide 38)

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