2013年9月30日星期一

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Exam Code: VCPC510
Exam Name: VMware (VMware Certified Professional on vCloud)
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 250 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which three features are only available when using a vSphere Distributed Switch? (Choose
three.)
A. Port Mirroring
B. PVLAN tagging
C. Egress Traffic Shaping
D. Ingress Traffic Shaping
E. 802.1q VLAN Tagging
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 As a System Administrator you can disable an Organization vDC. Disabling will have which of
the
following effects? (Choose two)
A. vApps in the Org vDC that are not running cannot be powered on.
B. All vApps in the Org vDC will be shutdown.
C. Users will not be able to create or start additional vApps in that Org vDC.
D. The running vApps in the Org vDC will have their storage lease reset.
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 In a large organization, a user has 10 VMs deployed in vCloud Director, backed by a
Pay-As-You-
Go allocation model. The user needs to determine the charges being incurred for resource usage.
Which report type does the user need?
A. Showback Report
B. Usage Report
C. Cost Comparison Report
D. Cost Report
Answer: D

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NO.4 On which two vSphere elements can traffic shaping be configured? (Choose two.)
A. On a vSphere Distributed Switch dvPort for inbound and/or outbound traffic
B. On a vSphere Distributed Switch for inbound and/or outbound traffic
C. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound traffic
D. On a vSphere Standard Switch port group or the entire vSwitch for inbound and outbound traffic
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 An administrator would like to have vCenter take action any time a virtual machine is using
over
90% of its available resources for five minutes or longer.
Which three actions can be taken by vCenter Server in response to the trigger without running a
script? (Choose three.)
A. Power on a VM
B. Reboot Guest on VM
C. Increase Virtual Machine Memory
D. Migrate a VM
E. Increase Virtual Machine CPU Shares
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.6 Which two resources must be in place prior to creating a new Provider vDC? (Choose two.)
A. vCloud External Network
B. vCenter Datastore
C. vCenter Resource Pool
D. vShield Protection Group
Answer: B,C

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NO.7 An administrator attempts to delete the network named Internet but receives an error.
What is a possible reason for the error?
A. The network named Internet is backed by a port group on a vSphere Standard Switch.
B. The vShield Edge appliance on the external network is powered off.
C. The administrator needs to be an Organization Administrator.
D. The network is still in use by an Organization.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which two components are required for a vCloud infrastructure installation? (Choose two.)
A. AMQP Broker
B. vCloud Connector
C. vShield Manager
D. Oracle/MS SQL database
Answer: C,D

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Exam Code: DP-022W
Exam Name: Veritas (Data Protection Implementation for Windows using NetBackup 5.0)
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Total Q&A: 124 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A moderately used database server must be configured as a NetBack up client. The
database application is custom built and is not covered by a NetBackup database
agent. Backups must be performed quickly and open files need to be backed up. In
addition, the ability to restore individual files from backup is required.
Which of the following backup methods would best fit this scenario?
A. Copy-on-write snapshot
B. Mirror snapshot
C. Flash backup
D. True Image Restore enabled backup
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which three methods can be used to ensure that your NetBackup catalog has been
backed up? (Choose three.)
A. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Configure NetBackup Catalog
Backup"
B. individually run "bprecover -1" against your catalog images (tape or disk)
C. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Verify NetBackup Catalog
Recoverability"
D. in the GUI, check the "Activity Monitor" for catalog backup results
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.3 A disk-based storage unit must be created for use in a small number of backup
policies.
Which action is taken to ensure that this storage unit is used only by the intended
policies?
A. enable the "On demand only" option for the disk storage unit and target this specific
storage unit in each of the intended backup policies.
B. configure the disk storage unit as the destination storage unit in each of the intended
backup policies
C. add only the intended policies to the "Authorized Policies" tab of the storage unit
D. add the disk storage unit to a unique "Storage Unit Group" and target this specific
storage unit group in each of the intended backup policies
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two steps are required during the initial installation of a NetBackup master
server? (Choose two.)
A. create volume pools
B. define storage units
C. setup policy schedules
D. enter the server license
E. specify the NetBackup server type
Answer: D, E

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NO.5 You have an MSSQL database that you need to add to your environment.
Which three items do you need to know before backups can be configured? (Choose
three.)
A. the version of MSSQL being used
B. the kind of authentication being used
C. the directories in which the database files are located
D. he backup retentions needed by the DBA
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.6 You need to add a number of Windows servers from another department to your
NetBackup Windows 2003 master server. The system administrator for these
systems has given you a Domain Administrator account and permission to install
the client, but he will not be available to help you He has not given you access to the
computer room where the systems are physically located.
What is the supported method for installing the client?
A. A share the installation CD on the network, log into the systems through a "Remote
Terminal" session, map the CD and run setup.exe
B. from the Administration client on the master server, select all the remote clients in
"Host Properties", right-click and select "Client Install"
C. log in to any system on the domain as the domain administrator, run Launch.exe on
the install CD and installation to network clients
D.remote installation is not allowed;the system administrator will have to give you
physical access to the new clients
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator planning a new NetBackup installation has 10,000 tapes in a single
library and 27 tape pools.
Which NetBackup feature allows automatic assignment of free tapes to any of the 27
pools when the pool runs out of tapes?
A. enabling a scratch pool
B. setting up bar code rules for each pool
C. turning on Media Multiplexing for each pool
D. enabling auto-assign media in the Universal Attributes tab
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which two commands allow management of storage units through the command
line?(Choose two.)
A. bpstuadd
B. bpstulist
C. bpsturemove
D. bpstudelete
Answer: A, B

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NO.9 Which two methods determine the patch level of a client? (Choose two.)
A. Run the support script in the goodies directory on the master server
B. Select Help > About from the backup, Archive, and Restore interface on the client
C. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the media server
D. Select Help > About from the NetBackup Administration Console on the master
server
Answer: A, B

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NO.10 Which directory path on the client can the client's patch level be determined?
A. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Patch
B. <Install_path>\Patch
C. <Install_path>\ Volmgr\Bin\Version
D. <Install_path>\ Version
Answer: B

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NO.11 What is required for Shared Storage Option installation?
A. Fibre Channel connections for all tape devices to be shared
B. a robot SCSI connection to all participating NetBackup media servers
C. 1-gigabit Ethernet communication between all participating NetBackup servers
D. A SSO license key on the NetBackup master server and on all participating
NetBackup media servers
Answer: D

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NO.12 The VERITAS device drivers have been installed on a Microsoft Windows server.
What must be done before configuring any devices?
A. run vmquery
B. run bpconfig
C. reboot the computer
D. restart NetBackup services
Answer: C

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NO.13 Your company has a single master/media server. You have just updated the
NetBackup master server with the latest patch. Now all the hot Oracle database
backups fail.
What should you do?
A. patch Oracle Agents on all Oracle clients
B. reboot the master server after installing the patch
C. install the latest Oracle Agents patch on the master server
D. reboot the Oracle clients after installing the patch on the master server
Answer: B

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NO.14 You are currently assigned to conduct a NetBackup assessment for a Storage Area
Network environment. The system administrator wants to know how to verify that
the Fibre Channel switches are supported by VERITAS.
Which two tasks can be done to determine if VERITAS supports the switches?
(Choose two.)
A. review the SNIA Certification List
B. review the Compatibility Matrix Guide
C. review the Media Manager Device Configuration Guide
D. ask the system administrator which types of switches they are using
Answer: A, B

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NO.15 Which three conditions must be met for Synthetic backups? (Choose three.)
A.The policy type must be configured as "Standard" or "Ms_windows-NT"
B.The policy must have "Collect true image restore information" and "with move
detection" selected
C.The master server, media server and clients involved must be running NetBackup version
3.4 or higher
D.The schedule created for the synthetic backup must have the "Synthetic Backup" option
selected
Answer: A, B, D

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NO.16 Which two statements are true about a media server upgrade installation from
version 4.5 to version 5.0? (Choose two.)
A. All clients must be on 50 if their media server is on 50
B. All master and media servers must be on NetBackup 5.0
C. The media servers must be on 4.5 or 50 if the clients are on 4.5
D. The master server can be upgraded to 5.0, and media servers can remain at4.5
Answer: C, D

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose
two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS
Answer: A, C

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NO.18 In preparation for a master server upgrade, you want to launch a backup of the
NetBackup catalog. Which two methods accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. in the GUI, right-click your configured catalog backup policy, and select "Manual
Backup"
B. in the GUI, right-click on "Catalog" and select "Backup NetBackup Catalog "
C. from the command line, run "bpbackup" with appropriate switches
D. from the command line, run "bpbackupdb" with appropriate switches
Answer: B, D

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NO.19 The master server host properties option "Free Browse" in the "General" tab will
allow ________.
A. accounts without local Administrator privileges on the master server to view
NetBackup configuration settings
B. any NetBackup client to view NetBackup configuration settings
C. designated NetBackup clients to view images from scheduled backups
D. the NetBackup master server to browse remote file systems when creating a file list
for a policy
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which NetBackup command do you use to help verify NetBackup client
configuration and network connectivity?
A. Bpclntcmd -ip
B. Bpclntcmd -hn
C. Bpclntcmd -pn
D. Bpclntcmd -listall
Answer: C

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Exam Code: TB0-118
Exam Name: Tibco (Architecting Composite Applications and Services with TIBCO)
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Total Q&A: 118 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 In which format does TIBCO Designer store project trusted certificates?
A. PKCS12
B. PKCS7
C. KeyStore
D. PEM
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which two interaction patterns are supported in TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus? (Choose two.)
A.Synchronous In-Out with SOAP/JMS
B.Asynchronous In-Out with SOAP/HTTP
C.Synchronous Out-In with XML over JMS
D.Asynchronous Out-Only with XML over JMS
Answer:AD

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NO.3 When a single instance of a service provider is no longer capable of handling the volume of activity due
to the business process complexity required to handle each request, which two statements are true?
(Choose two.)
A.XML compression reduces the load on the service providers.
B.Scalability can be improved using technology such as HTTP load balancers.
C.The feature should be re-architected as it is not a good candidate for Web Services.
D.Using a JMS-based transport can help improve scalability.
Answer:BD

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NO.4 When wrapping a backend system, what does a Web Service always provide that the native system
interface does not?
A.standardized service operation semantics
B.an HTTP-based interface
C.a common data model
D.access independent of implementation technology
Answer:D

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NO.5 Which three categories of information should be found in a domain information model? (Choose
three.)
A.concepts
B.detailed attributes
C.attribute datatypes
D.identifiers
E.relationship multiplicity
Answer:ADE

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NO.6 Which two statements reflect the realities about using common data models? (Choose two.)
A.A common data model provides a single representation of each concept that is used everywhere.
B.The goal of common data models is to minimize the number of representations of each concept.
C.The use of comprehensive data structures that combine many concepts simplifies interface design.
D.Enterprises typically require more than one representation for each concept.
Answer:BD

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NO.7 What is the root element of a TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus design?
A.SCA component
B.SCA composite
C.mediation flow
D.Spring implementation type
Answer:D

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NO.8 You are deploying a Web Service that is bound to a JMS transport on multiple TIBCO ActiveMatrix
nodes.
What can you do to achieve service scalability?
A.reference a JMS topic in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
B.reference a JMS queue in the JMS Destination Configuration resource template
C.configure a routed messaging topology with a multi-hop zone
D.configure queue-to-queue bridging without specifying a selector
Answer:C

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NO.9 What are three things that can be managed via runtime policies? (Choose three.)
A.service granularity
B.request logging
C.service ownership
D.design versioning
E.access control
F.usage auditing
Answer:BEF

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NO.10 Which two composition styles can be used to define a composite application? (Choose two.)
A.orchestration
B.integration
C.choreography
D.collaboration
Answer:AC

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NO.11 Which three aspects of design must be defined by the architect using a Total Architecture approach?
(Choose three.)
A.system components
B.security policies
C.communication paths and communication mechanisms
D.interaction with human participants
E.use of Common Data Model schemas in service interfaces
Answer:ACD

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NO.12 Which three characteristics define a Service Component Architecture component type? (Choose
three.)
A.the implementation technology of the component
B.the services that are provided by the component
C.the properties of the component
D.the binding types of the component
E.the references that are made by the component
Answer:BCE

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NO.13 Requirements call for a standards-compliant messaging solution.
Which TIBCO product best meets this requirement?
A.TIBCO BusinessEvents
B.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus
C.TIBCO ActiveMatrix BusinessWorks
D.TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Grid
E.TIBCO Enterprise Messaging Server
Answer:A

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NO.14 Which two statements are true about processes defined with the Business Process Execution
Language for Web Services (WS-BPEL)? (Choose two.)
A.Process faults in WS-BPEL always return SOAP faults.
B.WS-BPEL processes are always initiated by Web Service calls.
C.Data mappings in a WS-BPEL process require an external service invocation.
D.All functionality used by a WS-BPEL process must be provided in the form of Web Services.
Answer:BD

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NO.15 A TIBCO ActiveMatrix Service Bus-based order fulfillment application makes outbound requests to an
inventory service. Based on the geography and quantity of the order, the request must be routed to one of
a number of different specialized inventory service instances.
What are two possible ways to route the requests in ActiveMatrix? (Choose two.)
A.configure the order fulfillment application to reference the different inventory service instances
B.use XPath to create conditional references from the order fulfillment composite to each inventory
service instance
C.create a Mediation Flow containing route tasks and route cases
D.create a dynamic binding to the inventory service and use XPath to compute the routing
Answer:CD

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NO.16 Which two statements are true with respect to the granularity of a service? (Choose two.)
A.Fine-grained services are likely to be usable in many places, so you can ignore their access overhead.
B.Fine-grained service benefits may be outweighed by their access overhead.
C.Coarse-grained services are likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality
D.Coarse-grained services are less likely to be reusable because they encapsulate a lot of functionality.
Answer:BD

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NO.17 Which two statements are true about namespaces in the XSD standard? (Choose two.)
A.Namespaces are intended as descriptive information for human users.
B.Changes to namespaces are commonly used to identify major version changes in an XSD.
C.An XML file can be validated with two XSDs, which differ by namespace but have the same element
definitions.
D.Two XSD files, which differ by namespace but with the same elements definitions, define different
schemas.
Answer:BD

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NO.18 What is an important practical benefit of service discovery?
A.It allows programs to dynamically discover new features as needed.
B.It allows internal development groups to find functionality that can be reused.
C.It allows services to discover potential consumers using the UDDI protocol.
D.It allows governance groups to discover functionality that could become a service.
Answer:B

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NO.19 What are two essential elements of a reference architecture? (Choose two.)
A.a concrete deployment model
B.an abstracted architecture pattern
C.a common data model
D.an abstracted process model
Answer:BD

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NO.20 Which three statements are true about a WSDL instance? (Choose three.)
A.It describes the location of a service, but not the individual operations.
B.It does not require concrete communications endpoints
C.A message may contain more than one part, such as a purchase order and an invoice.
D.An action supported by a service is known as its binding.
E.A port type (interface) is an abstract set of operations.
Answer:BCE

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NO.1 Scenario: Global Mobile 1
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Global Mobile is a mobile telecommunications company formed through a series of mergers and
acquisitions. They are yet to fully integrate the customer service systems for the most recent acquisitions,
and as result, customer service has been a major concern for the Chief Technology Officer.
Results for the last two quarters have shown that Average Revenue Per User (ARPU) and the customer
retention (Churn) rate have fallen below the industry average. The Corporate Marketing group has
published some new findings about customer satisfaction. The customers appear to be switching to Air
Light, a competitor, because of superior customer service. Global Mobile actually has better coverage in
nearly all markets than Air Light, and good roaming agreements that keep rates low for business travelers.
But, customer satisfaction has remained low.
The Business Strategy group and the Enterprise Architecture group have conducted a high-level project
to develop the enterprise-wide strategic plan. They have developed a business scenario which contains a
good conceptual model of what needs to be done, and also identifies the key requirements. This was
used in preparing the proposal presented to the Executive Council and the Corporate Board.
The planning for the program has been underway for several months. Global Mobile has selected TOGAF
9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture.
The Corporate Board has approved funding for a multi-million Euro conversion to transition to a packaged
Customer Service System. It is anticipated that the overall program will take five years to complete, but
there are some tactical projects that can commence immediately to address the situation. The Corporate
Board has placed one additional major constraint on the program. In addition to achieving the business
outcomes directly related to improving overall customer service within each business unit, the Corporate
Board expects the Target Architecture to produce an additional saving of at least 30% over current
operating costs through energy efficiency initiatives, virtualization of servers and workstations, and
expanded telecommuting and desk-sharing. This Green initiative is intended to become a model for future
investments at all company facilities worldwide.
Refer to Global Mobile scenario
You have been engaged as a consultant to advise the Chief Architect on the best ways to approach to the
implementation planning activities for this significant business transformation.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer? (Is this the right answers to choose?)
A. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The horizontal scope of the
Green initiative would make the Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization's
TOGAF-based Enterprise Architecture framework difficult to manage and govern. This approach to
planning was better applied within the vertical scope of a business unit.
B. You recommend that the implementation planning activities be conducted using Capability-Based
Planning. This is appropriate because the Green initiative is an enterprise-wide plan with a horizontal
scope. Its metrics are aggregated at the enterprise level. It is crucial to gain business unit support and
cooperation to achieve the broader business outcomes which will benefit all.
C. The Capability-Based Planning approach used in the organization's TOGAF-based Enterprise
Architecture framework is focused on business outcomes. The Green initiative is an infrastructure
program that is technical in nature; therefore, it would not be appropriate to use the Capability-Based
Planning approach. Instead, the Global Mobile systems development lifecycle approach should be
utilized to develop the Solution Architecture.
D. You recommend using conventional implementation planning techniques. The Capability-Based
Planning approach is normally only used in public sector, defense-related programs. This approach is not
appropriate for a private sector company.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Scenario: AGEX Inc.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
AGEX is a large, global commodities trading company which has been growing rapidly through a series of
acquisitions.
Each new business is performing well in its markets. However, the lack of integration between
headquarters and the business units has increasingly caused problems in the handling of customer and
financial information. The inability to share information across businesses has resulted in lost
opportunities to "leverage the synergies" that had been intended when the businesses were acquired. At
present, each business unit maintains its own applications. Despite an earlier initiative to install a common
application to manage customer, products, supplier, and inventory information, each business unit has
different ways of defining each of these core elements and has customized the common application to the
point where the ability to exchange information is difficult, costly, and error-prone.
As a result, AGEX has begun implementing a single Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system to
consolidate information from several applications that exist across the lines of business. The Corporate
Board is concerned that the new ERP system must be able to manage and safeguard customer
information in a manner that meets or exceeds the legal requirements of the countries in which the
company operates. This will be an increasingly important capability as the company expands its online
services offered to clients and trading partners.
The CIO has formed an Enterprise Architecture department, and one of the primary goals in its charter is
to coordinate efforts between the ERP implementation team and the business unit personnel who will be
involved in the migration process. The CIO has also formed a cross-functional Architecture Review Board
to oversee and govern the architecture.
After reviewing the available alternatives, and based on recommendations from the ERP vendor, AGEX
has selected TOGAF 9 as the basis for its Enterprise Architecture program.
The CIO has endorsed this choice with the full support of top management.
Refer to the AGEX Inc. Scenario
You are serving as the Chief Architect.
You have been asked to recommend the approach to take in the Preliminary Phase to ensure that the
Corporate Board's concern is addressed.
Based en TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern in terms of regulatory and security policy
requirements. You then update the AGEX security policy to reflect the concern, ensuring that this policy is
communicated across the organization. You allocate a security architecture team to ensure that security
considerations are included in ongoing architecture planning. You then assess the security implications
and agreements within the AGEX businesses and their suppliers.
B. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern in terms of regulatory requirements and their
impact on business goals and objectives. Based on this understanding, you then issue a Request for
Architecture Work to commence an architecture development project to develop a solution that will
address the Board's concern. You allocate a security architect to oversee the implementation of the
solution in the ERP system that is being developed.
C. You start by clarifying the intent that the Board has for raising this concern. This enables you to
understand the implications of the concern in terms of regulatory requirements and the potential impact on
current business goals and objectives. You propose that a security architect or security architecture team
be allocated to develop comprehensive security architecture.
D. You evaluate the implications of the Board's concern by examining the potential impacts on business
goals and objectives. Based on your understanding, you then update the current AGEX security policy to
include an emphasis on the Board's concern. In addition, you allocate a security architect to ensure that
security considerations are included in the architecture planning for all domains.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Scenario: Rollins Manufacturing
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Rollins Manufacturing is a major supplier in the automotive industry, headquartered in Cleveland, Ohio
with manufacturing plants in Chicago, Sao Paulo, Stuttgart, Yokohama, and Seoul. Each of these plants
has been operating its own Manufacturing Requirements Planning (MRPII) system, production scheduling,
and custom developed applications that drive the automated production equipment at each plant.
Rollins is implementing lean manufacturing principles to minimize waste and improve the efficiency of all
of its production operations. During a recent exercise held for internal quality improvement, it was
determined that a significant reduction in process waste could be achieved by replacing the current MRPII
and scheduling systems with a common Enterprise Resource Planning (ERP) system located in the
Cleveland data center. This central system would provide support to each of the plants replacing the
functionality in the existing systems. It would also eliminate the need for full data centers at each of the
plant facilities. A reduced number of IT staff could support the remaining applications. In some cases, a
third-party contractor could provide those staff.
The Rollins Enterprise Architecture department has been operating for several years and has mature,
well-developed architecture governance and development processes that are strongly based on TOGAF
9.At a recent meeting, the Architecture Review Board approved a Request for Architecture Work from the
Chief Engineer of Global Manufacturing Operations who is the project sponsor. The request covered the
initial architectural investigations and the development of a comprehensive architecture to plan the
transformation.
The Common ERP Deployment architecture project team has now been formed, and the project team has
been asked to develop an Architecture Vision that will achieve the desired outcomes and benefits. Some
of the plant managers have expressed concern about the security and reliability of driving their MRPII and
production scheduling from a central system located in Cleveland. The Chief Engineer wants to know how
these concerns can be addressed.
Refer to the Rollins Manufacturing Scenario:
You are serving as the Lead Enterprise Architect for the Common ERP Deployment architecture project.
One of the earliest initiatives in the Enterprise Architecture program at Rollins was the definition of a set of
IT principles and architecture principles that are well aligned with the overall enterprise principles. These
now need to be updated to address the concerns raised.
You have been asked to select a set of principles most appropriate for guiding the team to define a robust
solution.
[Note: You should assume that Rollins has adopted the example set of principles that are listed and
defined in TOGAF 9, Section 23.6.]
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. Common-use Applications, Data is Shared, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Interoperability, Control
Technical Diversity.
B. Business Continuity, Service-orientation, Data is Accessible, Data is Secure, Responsive Change
Management.
C. Maximize Benefit to the Enterprise, Business Continuity, Common-use Applications, Data is Shared,
Data is Accessible, Data is Secure.
D. Information Management is Everybody's Business, IT Responsibility, Data Trustee, Technology
Independence, Responsive Change Management.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Scenario: Vittronics Ltd.
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Vittronics Ltd. is a leading medical device manufacturer in the highly competitive market for Migraine
Headache Pain Management (MHPM) devices. These tiny wireless devices are implanted in the brain
and can deliver a precise electric shock when the wearable Pain Control Unit (PCU) detects an increase
in stress induced by the onset of a migraine headache.
This technology will be a breakthrough in the treatment of this condition, and several competitors are
striving to be the first to introduce a product into the market. However, all of them must demonstrate the
effectiveness and safety of their products in a set of clinical trials that will satisfy the regulatory
requirements of the countries in the target markets.
The Enterprise Architecture group at Vittronics has been engaged in an architecture development project
to create a Secure Private Immersive Collaborative Environment (SPICE) that will allow researchers at its
product development laboratories worldwide to share information about their independent clinical trials.
The Vittronics Enterprise Architecture group is a mature organization that has been utilizing TOGAF for
several years. They have recently upgraded to TOGAF 9. The Vittronics Architecture Development
Method (VADM) is strictly based on the TOGAF 9 Architecture Development Method (ADM) with
extensions required to support current good manufacturing practices and good laboratory practices in
their target markets.
The SPICE project team has now completed the Business, Information Systems, and Technology
Architecture phases and has produced a complete set of deliverables for each phase. Due to the highly
sensitive nature of the information that is managed in SPICE, special care was taken to ensure that each
architecture domain included an examination of the security and privacy issues that are relevant for each
domain. A corresponding SPICE Security Architecture has been defined.
The Executive Vice President for Clinical Research is the sponsor of the Enterprise Architecture activity.
Refer to the Vittronics Ltd Scenario:
You are serving as the Lead Architect for the SPICE project team.
As required by TOGAF, the SPICE project team res completed a Business Transformation Readiness
Assessment in Phase A (Architecture Vision). In that assessment, it was determined that there are risks
associated with the adoption of the Immersive Collaborative Environment. Despite a clear expression of
the vision and the business need for utilizing SPICE to accelerate the clinical trials, the researchers have
been resisting the change because of concerns about safeguarding individually identifiable information
about the subjects who were participating in the trials.
You have been asked to recommend how this situation be managed in the implementation planning
phases.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You decide that in Phase E, the team creates an overall solutions strategy that can guide the Target
Architecture implementation and structure the Transition Architectures. You check that there is consensus
before proceeding.
B. You decide to return to Phase A, where the team should brainstorm a technical solution that mitigates
the residual risks presented by the privacy issue. Then, during Phase D, you will directthe team to
develop an Architecture Building Block to manage the security risks. After that, the team should select
Solution Building Blocks that mitigate all of the identified risks and revise the Requirements Impact
Statement to reflect the changes to the high-level solutions strategy and migration plan.
C. You decide that in Phase E, the team review the Business Transformation Readiness Assessment and
identify, classify, and mitigate the risks associated with the identified readiness factors. If the risks can be
satisfactorily mitigated, then you would continue to define a high-level solutions strategy that includes the
Transition Architectures needed to make the change culturally and technically feasible.
D. You decide that in Phase E, the team determines an approach to implementing an overall strategic
direction that will address and mitigate the risks identified.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Scenario: Zephyr Enterprises
Please read this scenario prior to answering the question
Zephyr Enterprises specializes in the development of wind turbine blades for use in large-scale
commercial wind energy production systems. Zephyr has manufacturing facilities located in Palm Springs,
California, Omaha, Nebraska, and Winnipeg, Ontario. Each of these plants supplies a different
manufacturer that builds and sells complete systems. The turbine blades are custom engineered to meet
each manufacturers design specifications.
Until recently, most turbine blades were fabricated manually using molded fiber-reinforced plastics.
However, recent improvements in composite materials, coupled with enhanced automated methods for
precision application of materials during the molding process, have led to significant reduction in weight,
increase in strength, and greatly improved blade longevity. Zephyr has pioneered the development of a
proprietary automated process for continuous extrusion of the turbine blades. Patents have been filed to
protect the process, but certain trade secrets must be closely guarded.
Zephyr has a mature Enterprise Architecture organization that is supported by a cross-functional
Architecture Review Board. The Chief Information Officer and the Chief Operating Officer cosponsor the
Enterprise Architecture program.
Zephyr has used TOGAF and its Architecture Development Method (ADM) to develop its automated
manufacturing processes and systems that are used to design, manufacture, and test the blade
assemblies. They have recently updated to TOGAF 9 and have adapted the Zephyr Enterprise
Architecture to closely follow the TOGAF 9 framework. All of Zephyrs IT architects have been trained and
certified on TOGAF 9.Recently, an architecture project was completed that defined a standard approach
for controlling the Automated Test System that is used at each plant to perform final quality assurance
tests on each completed blade assembly. The Manufacturing Architecture Board approved the plan for
immediate implementation at each plant.
An Architecture Contract was developed that detailed the work needed to implement and deploy the new
Automated Test System controller. The Chief Engineer, sponsor of the activity, has expressed concern
that a uniform process be employed at each site to ensure consistency.
Refer to the Zephyr Enterprises Scenario
You are the Lead Architect for this activity.
You have been asked to recommend the best approach to adopt to address the Chief Engineer's concern.
Based on TOGAF 9, which of the following is the best answer?
A. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend
that if a deviation from the contract is detected, the Manufacturing Architecture Board should modify the
Architecture Contract to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to
meet their local needs. As a result, you then issue a new Request for Architecture Work to implement the
modified Architecture Definition.
B. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal envelopment projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize a memorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You recommend
that if a deviation from the Architecture Contract is detected, the Manufacturing Architecture Board grant a
dispensation to allow the implementation organization the ability to customize the process to meet their
local needs.
C. You create an Architecture Contract to manage and govern the implementation and migration process.
If the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. For
internal development projects, you decide it is adequate to utilize amemorandum of understanding
between the Manufacturing Architecture Board and the implementation organization. You ensure that the
Manufacturing Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture Contract, and considers
whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization to customize the process
to meet their local needs.
D. You create an Architecture Contract to govern the implementation and migration process at each site. If
the contract is issued to an external party, you ensure that it is a fully enforceable legal contract. You
ensure that the contract addresses the project objectives, effectiveness metrics, acceptance criteria, and
risk management. You then schedule compliance reviews at key points in the implementation process to
ensure that the work is proceeding in accordance with the Architecture Definition. Based on the results,
you ensure that the Manufacturing Architecture Board reviews all deviations from the Architecture
Contract, and considers whether or not to grant a dispensation to allow the implementation organization
to customize the process to meet their local needs.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 250-307
Exam Name: Symantec (Admin of Symantec Enterprise Vault 2007 for Exchange)
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Total Q&A: 172 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 According to Enterprise Vault indexing best practices, one of two configuration steps should
be performed when index volumes are stored on a remote windows share.What are these two
configuration steps? (Choose two.)
A.disable Opportunistic locks from being granted through the remote server's registry
B.disable Opportunistic locks from being requested through the vault server's registry
C.disable Opportunistic locking on the vault server through ADSI edit
D.enable Opportunistic locks to be requested through the remote server's registry
E.enable Opportunistic locks to be granted through the vault server's registry
Correct:A B

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NO.2 What should be done when troubleshooting a mailbox synchronization problem? (Choose three.)
A.verify that the Task Controller Service is running
B.ensure that the Mailbox Archiving Task for Exchange Server is running
C.run EVverify.exe
D.check the relevant message queue
E.verify that the Indexing Service is running
Correct:A B D

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NO.3 Which two conditions must be met before a mailbox can be enabled? (Choose two.)
A.The mailbox must be placed in a Provisioning Group.
B.The Indexing Service must be running.
C.The Provisioning Task must have run.
D.The mailbox management process must be running.
E.The Mailbox Archiving Task must be restarted.
Correct:A C

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NO.4 Which feature of Offline Vault is designed to reduce synchronization times?
A.auto downloading
B.age-based archiving
C.pre-emptive caching
D.multi-threaded caching
Correct:C

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NO.5 Which two Web-based clients support the Symantec Enterprise Vault toolbar buttons, such as
Store in Vault and Delete from Vault? (Choose two.)
A.Safari
B.Outlook Web Access Basic
C.Outlook Web Access Premium
D.Firefox
E.Offline Archive Explorer
Correct:B C

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NO.6 Which two methods can be used to view the policy settings contained within the hidden
messages? (Choose two.)
A.access Enterprise Vault Diagnostics from within the Outlook client and go to Vault Information
B.locate the latest Exchange Provisioning Task Report under the Enterprise Vault Reports directory and
verify the latest policy settings that are being applied to
C.users
D.using the Enterprise Vault full client, right-click on the Inbox, go to Properties, Enterprise Vault tab, and
view the hidden message
E.Access the Enterprise Vault Diagnostics from within the Outlook client and view the client log
F.run a DTrace during the synchronization process with a filter on "Hidden Message" to view all settings
being set within the user's hidden message
Correct:A D

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NO.7 Refer to the Exhibit. Phil, Sabina, and Anthony all work for the same company. The Symantec
Enterprise Vault Provisioning Groups and their members are as follows: Phil is part of the Sales
Organizational Unit. Sabina is part of the Marketing Organizational Unit. Anthony is part of the
Marketing Organizational Unit and also a manager of the marketing team. The Sales Group
consists of all members of the Sales Organizational Unit. The Marketing Group consists of all
members of the Marketing Organizational Unit. The Department Heads Group consists of all
managers. Assuming the Provisioning Groups are set up as shown in the exhibit, which statement
accurately describes the users and their resulting mailbox policies?
A.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, and both Sabina and Anthony will be part of the Marketing Group.
B.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, Sabina will be part of the Marketing Group, and Anthony will be part
of the Department Heads Group.
C.Phil will be part of the Sales Group, Sabina will be part of the Marketing Group, and Anthony will be part
of both the Marketing and the Department Heads Group.
D.Anthony will be part of the Department Heads Group, and both Sabina and Phil will be part of the
Marketing Group.
Correct:A

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NO.8 Exchange mailboxes that are enabled for archiving are examined regularly and messages older
than a specified age are moved. Where are the messages moved to?
A.offsite partition
B.archive library
C.user-specific archive
D.collection site
Correct:C

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NO.9 A large organization wants to replace mail messages with shortcuts after archiving. However,
they want to configure shortcuts to retain only a portion of the original message. Which setting
will allow only a portion of each mail message to be used in the shortcut?
A.Display attachments as
B.Include message body
C.Message characters to include
D.Include link to archived item
Correct:C

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NO.10 In addition to index locations, which Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) folders should be
excluded from Anti-Virus scanning on all EV servers? (Choose three.)
A.MSMQ storage location
B.C:\program files\Enterprise Vault\MOM
C.TEMP folders
D.Shopping folder
E.Convertors folder
Correct:A C D

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NO.11 Symantec Enterprise Vault (EV) has been configured to run Journaling and Mailbox Archiving to
separate Vault Stores with Vault Store partitions that are configured on NTFS. Mailbox Archiving is
set to archive large items after one month and all items older than three months. Which items are
single instance stored between the Journal and Mailbox archives?
A.Zero items are single instance stored.
B.Large items, older than one month are single instance stored.
C.Items older than three months are single instance stored.
D.All items are single instance stored.
Correct:A

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NO.12 A Symantec Enterprise Vault monitoring report indicates that messages are no longer cleared
from the journal mailbox. What are three possible causes for this? (Choose three.)
A.Exchange Mailbox Archiving Task has shut down.
B.Exchange Journaling Task has shut down.
C.An administrator has modified permissions to the Exchange Server object in the Vault Administration
Console.
D.An administrator has modified permissions to the Exchange Journal mailbox.
E.An administrator has modified permissions to the journal archive.
Correct:B D E

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NO.13 Which three types of Outlook Web Access (OWA) security configurations does Enterprise Vault
support? (Choose three.)
A.basic authentication
B.SSL
C.forms based authentication
D.premium mode
E.DCOM
Correct:A B C

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NO.14 What is the default indexing level for a Symantec Enterprise Vault site?
A.None
B.Brief
C.Medium
D.Full
Correct:C

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NO.15 Within Provisioning Groups, what defines how archiving is performed for the groups defined?
A.status of the vault partition
B.size of the Exchange Server
C.the Mailbox Policy
D.the Provisioning Task
Correct:C

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NO.16 How often does the Symantec Enterprise Vault Journal Archiving Task process the journal
mailbox?
A.every 30 seconds
B.every 60 seconds
C.every two minutes
D.every five minutes
Correct:B

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NO.17 Which two can interfere with the normal operation of indexing? (Choose two.)
A.real-time antivirus scanning of index locations
B.index locations on SAN storage
C.SchemaType that is set incorrectly
D./3GB switch in boot.ini
E.index location on network share
Correct:A D

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NO.18 An organization has a requirement to archive email from Exchange. They want to provide users
the basic ability to search archived mail and attachment content, but with minimal space used for
this feature. Which statement describes how this would be accomplished?
A.Indexing levels should be set to Medium.
B.A Vault Store must be configured with Medium indexing.
C.All attachments are fully indexed regardless of index level.
D.The indexing schema must be changed from its default value.
Correct:A

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NO.19 When creating a Directory database, where should the data and log locations be stored?
A.on the same disk as the Audit database
B.on the same disk as the Vault Store database
C.on the indexing server
D.on separate physical disks
Correct:D

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NO.20 When processing a scheduled archiving run, all processes appear to be functioning correctly
and no errors are logged. However no items are archived during the scheduled time frame. What
needs to be checked when troubleshooting this problem?
A.confirm the site schedule period is outside of normal business hours
B.confirm the archiving task "Run in report mode" option is deselected
C.confirm the archiving task is set to start automatically
D.confirm that the task settings enforces at least one item to be archived per run
Correct:B

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Exam Code: ST0-066
Exam Name: Symantec (Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 (STS))
One year free update, No help, Full refund!
Total Q&A: 91 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Where do you view the status of Software Updates while on a managed computer?
A. Add Remove Programs
B. Event Viewer
C. Software Management Agent
D. Altiris Agent
Answer: D

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NO.2 In the Symantec Management Console, which option allows an administrator to add trace level
messages to the Altiris Agent log file?
A. Enable Verbose Reporting of Status Events
B. Enable Trace Reporting of Status Events
C. Allow Failed Job Reporting for Status Events
D. Allow Agent Event Reporting for Status Events
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which statement is true about the Application Management feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on a network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to the number of purchased licenses.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two agents are required for Patch Management to successfully deploy client patches? (Select
two.)
A. Altiris Agent
B. Software Delivery Agent
C. Patch Management Update Agent
D. Software Update Agent
E. Patch Management Agent
Answer: AD

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NO.5 When using a Custom install for a Deployment Solution 6.9 installation, which three components are
optional? (Select three.)
A. Deployment Database
B. PXE Server
C. DHCP Server
D. pre-boot operating systems
E. Deployment Web Console
Answer: BDE

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NO.6 Which Deployment Solution 6.9 Console feature lets the Deployment Solution Manager create jobs that
can automatically determine which set of tasks to perform on a computer?
A. Auto-detect
B. Conditions
C. Filters
D. DeployAnywhere
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which Inventory Solution activity is accomplished without leveraging a task or policy?
A. detailed file inventory
B. stand-alone inventory
C. custom inventory
D. targeted software inventory
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which statement is true about the Application Metering feature of Inventory Solution?
A. It tracks and compares changes to application files and registry keys.
B. It monitors and denies the usage of applications on the network.
C. It gathers detailed information about application files.
D. It limits the usage of applications to purchased licenses.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which type of component is included in the Software Catalog?
A. licenses
B. hotfixes
C. updates
D. uninstalls
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which agent must be distributed to deploy patches?
A. Software Delivery Update Agent
B. Client Task Agent
C. Patch Management Agent
D. Software Update Agent
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which two third-party software programs must be installed prior to installing Deployment Solution 6.9?
(Select two.)
A. ActiveX
B. SQL
C. .NET Framework
D. Java
E. pre-boot automation operating systems
Answer: BC

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NO.12 What is the result of performing a Custom install of Deployment Solution 6.9 when the server name is
left blank under 'Discover Deployment Server Using TCP/IP Multicast'?
A. The agent will continue discovery attempts until the correct configuration is added to the new
Deployment Server.
B. The agent will prompt that a Deployment Server cannot be located.
C. The agent will connect to the first Deployment Server that responds.
D. The agent will fail and need to be reconfigured.
Answer: C

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NO.13 What is the function of the applicability rule?
A. It determines conflicts with other software resources within the Software Catalog.
B. It determines if a software resource has all the required components for delivery.
C. It determines if a software resource is applicable to the Software Portal for self-delivery.
D. It determines if a software resource is applicable to a given computer.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which default Standard Inventory policy is enabled to run when Inventory Solution is first installed?
A. Collect Full Inventory
B. Collect Hardware Inventory
C. Collect Custom Inventory
D. Collect Basic Inventory
Answer: A

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NO.15 An administrator is in the process of installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1.
Before exiting the installation program, but after Deployment Solution has been installed, which two
optional features can be installed? (Select two.)
A. Altiris Software Virtualization Solution
B. Deployment agents for Windows 2000 or later only
C. Enable Microsoft Sysprep support
D. pcAnywhere
E. Ghost Solution Suite
Answer: BC

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NO.16 Which two operating systems are supported when installing Deployment Solution 6.9 SP1 server
components? (Select two.)
A. VMWare ESX Server
B. Solaris 10
C. Windows 2003 64-bit
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux 5
E. Windows 2008
Answer: CE

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NO.17 Which two utilities or programs add additional pre-boot automation operating systems to the
Deployment Solution 6.9 installation? (Select two.)
A. PXE Configuration Utility
B. Boot Disk Creator
C. Ghost Explorer
D. PXE Component Installer
E. PXE Automation Installer
Answer: AB

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NO.18 Which two products are included in Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0? (Select two.)
A. Ghost Solution Suite
B. Recovery Solution
C. Real-Time System Manager
D. Wise Package Studio
E. Deployment Solution
Answer: CE

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NO.19 Which component of Altiris Client Management Suite 7.0 helps reduce the cost of imaging and
managing workstations and thin clients from a centralized location?
A. Endpoint Virtualization Solution
B. Ghost Solution Suite
C. Deployment Solution
D. Hardware Management Solution
Answer: C

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NO.20 After installing Patch Management Solution, what must be downloaded before updates can be
distributed?
A. Microsoft .Net Framework
B. Microsoft QChain
C. Microsoft Vulnerability Alerts
D. Microsoft Vulnerability Analysis Report
E. Microsoft Patch Management Import
Answer: BE

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